Skip to main content

star wars - How old should you be when you begin Jedi training?


Anakin Skywalker was about nine years old (see script link, below) during "The Phantom Menace". Yet according to various people, he was too old (or even "far too old") to begin training as a Jedi:




  • QUI-GON: "I'm afraid not. Had he been born in the Republic, we would have identified him early, and he would have become Jedi, no doubt...he has the way. But it's too late for him now, he's too old."

  • OBI-WAN: "The boy will not pass the Council's tests, Master, and you know it. He is far too old."

  • MACE WINDU: "He is too old. There is already too much anger in him."

  • and even ANAKIN himself: "I'm with Qui-Gon...but...they're not going to let me be a Jedi. I'm too old."


All quotes above from The Phantom Menace script.


However, during "The Empire Strikes Back" Yoda gives Luke's age (18 in chapter IV according to the Star Wars A New Hope script) as the reason to deny him training only after first saying that Luke is:



  • too impatient


  • too angry

  • not ready

  • is unfocused ("Never his mind on where he was") and

  • reckless


All from The Empire Strikes Back script.


I would have thought that, if at 9 Anakin was too old, Yoda would have seen Luke at 18+ and started off by saying, "No chance, he has".


So, what is the age to begin Jedi training?



Answer



While it's not explicitly stated in the films, the implication is that training starts at a very young age, before children have a chance to get too attached to family members, and that training at a young age allows children to develop without (much) love, anger, hate, etc.



The inconsistencies you note in your question arise from the situation at the time of each film. In Phantom Menace, the Republic was functioning as normal and so a child of 9 would definitely be considered too old to begin training, for the reasons Qui-Gon gave. At this stage the age limit is a matter of bureaucracy more than anything else.


In Empire Strikes Back, the Republic has long fallen, and Yoda is essentially the only Jedi left alive. The reasons he gives Luke before mentioning his age are essentially the reasons they didn't take in older children during the time of the Republic.


On top of this, I suspect that in Empire, Yoda is deliberately trying to put off Luke, to test his determination. He knows full well who Luke's father is, and that he would make a very powerful Jedi based on his midichlorian count. I suspect he rejects Luke initially more to check how Luke deals with rejection than anything else. If Luke had gotten angry or violent, Yoda would have rejected his training for that reason; but instead Luke manages to convince Yoda that he is "righteous" enough to be Yoda's last chance at keeping the Jedi order going.


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

Why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize Missy right away?

So after it was established that Missy is actually both the Master, and the "woman in the shop" who gave Clara the TARDIS number... ...why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize her right away? I remember the Tenth Doctor in The Sound of Drums stating that Timelords had a way of recognizing other Timelords no matter if they had regenerated. And Clara should have recognized her as well... I'm hoping for a better explanation than "Moffat screwed up", and that I actually missed something after two watchthroughs of the episode. Answer There seems to be a lot of in-canon uncertainty as to the extent to which Time Lords can recognise one another which far pre-dates Moffat's tenure. From the Time Lords page on Wikipedia : Whether or not Time Lords can recognise each other across regenerations is not made entirely clear: In The War Games, the War Chief recognises the Second Doctor despite his regeneration and it is implied that the Doctor knows him when they fir

the lord of the rings - Why is Gimli allowed to travel to Valinor?

Gimli was allowed to go to Valinor despite not being a ring bearer. Is this explained in detail or just with the one line "for his love for Galadriel"? Answer There's not much detail about this aside from what's said in Appendix A to Return of the King: We have heard tell that Legolas took Gimli Glóin's son with him because of their great friendship, greater than any that has been between Elf and Dwarf. If this is true, then it is strange indeed: that a Dwarf should be willing to leave Middle-earth for any love, or that the Eldar should receive him, or that the Lords of the West should permit it. But it is said that Gimli went also out of desire to see again the beauty of Galadriel; and it may be that she, being mighty among the Eldar, obtained this grace for him. More cannot be said of this matter. And Appendix B: Then Legolas built a grey ship in Ithilien, and sailed down Anduin and so over Sea; and with him, it is said, went Gimli the Dwarf . And when that sh

Did the gatekeeper and the keymaster get intimate in Ghostbusters?

According to TVTropes ( usual warning, don't follow the link or you'll waste half your life in a twisty maze of content ): In Ghostbusters, it's strongly implied that Dana Barret, while possessed by Zuul the Gatekeeper, had sex with Louis Tully, who was possessed by Vinz Clortho the Keymaster (key, gate, get it?), in order to free Big Bad Gozer. In fact, a deleted scene from the movie has Venkman explicitly asking Dana if she and Louis "did it". I turned the quote into a spoiler since it contains really poor-taste joke, but the gist of it is that it's implied that as part of freeing Gozer , the two characters possessed by the Keymaster and the Gatekeeper had sex. Is there any canon confirmation or denial of this theory (canon meaning something from creators' interviews, DVD commentary, script, delete scenes etc...)? Answer The Richard Mueller novelisation and both versions of the script strongly suggest that they didn't have sex (or at the very l

What is the etymology of Doctor Who?

I recently decided to watch Doctor Who, and started viewing the 2005 version. I have the first two episodes from the first season, and I can't help but wonder what is the etymology of the name "Doctor Who"? And why does the protagonist call himself "the Doctor" (or is it "the doctor")? Answer In the very first episode of Doctor Who (way back in 1963), the Doctor has a granddaughter going by the name "Susan Foreman", and the junkyard where the TARDIS is has the sign "I.M. Foreman". Barbara, who becomes one of the Doctor's companions, calls him "Doctor Foreman" (probably assuming that is his name given his relationship to Susan), and Ian (another early companion) does the same in the second episode, to which the Doctor says: Eh? Doctor who? What's he talking about? "Foreman" is most likely selected as a convenient surname for Susan to use because it happened to be on display near where the TARDIS landed.