Skip to main content

star wars - Why arm the bombs early?


This question is about Star Wars: The Last Jedi so I'm making sure the preview on the main page is spoiler-free.


In Star Wars: The Last Jedi, the bomber fleet (squadron?) arms their bombs long before reaching the primary target.


We see that arming the bombs only takes a few seconds. We also see that



arming the bombs makes the fleet extremely vulnerable, as all but one of the bombers is destroyed in a single chain reaction.




Given this, why did they not delay arming the bombs until just before they were ready to drop them? Wouldn't that have been safer and more likely to be effective?



Answer



It's a way to put a plot event in terms that an early 21st century moviegoer can quickly understand. Unfortunately, they sort of missed with that one... doesn't really stand up to even cursory examination.


You might even ask - why didn't they have automatic bomb arming devices? During WW2, bombs had automatic armers, wires that got pulled out when the bombs were dropped, releasing a small propeller that spun in the airflow and completed the arming after the bomb was well clear of the aircraft. Otherwise, a fragment from an exploding AA shell or bullet from an attacking fighter could hit the fuse and touch off the bomb while it was still in the aircraft.


Note that bombs contain high explosive, the 'high' indicating that a high amount of impact force is needed to set the explosive off. It's a safety measure, so you don't get a boom until you really want one. Even a bullet or shrapnel fragment won't set off high explosives, only a blasting cap or other device capable of creating a shock wave, can do that.


One exception in WW2: The detonators for the atomic bombs were not even installed until the bomber was well clear of Tinian island, the thought being that if something went wrong and the bomb blew when it went through the first stage of activation, they didn't want to take out their main bombing base.


One other exception: the kamikaze vehicles, both aircraft and the Kaiten manned torpedo, had manual arming methods, because the bomb never left the vehicle.


Presumably, the fleet, working with technology far in advance of ours, would have solved that issue for the same reason it was solved during WW2 - early arming means higher chance of premature detonation due to the enemy shooting at you and maybe hitting a bomb... as the fleet discovered, much to it's discomfort.


The alternative to that storyline would have been to come up with a plot that had the fleet obliterated for reasons that a moviegoer might struggle with... like maybe some sort of super weapon that a contemporary viewer might not understand.


An example of dated thinking evident in sci-fi: If you go back and view 2001: a space odyssey, you will find a few things that were clearly the result of a 1968 frame of reference: the video phone being a station and not a pocket phone, for example. That can be understood - even the concept of a cell phone didn't exist in 1968. (otherwise, that film was remarkably accurate, even with what we know today)



This one, though... a rare slip-up when they should have known better.


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

futurama - How much time is lost in 'Time Keeps on Slippin''

In time Keeps on Slippin' , Farnsworth creates a basketball team which he matures by abusing Chronitons. This leads to time skipping forward by random, but ever increasing amounts. How much time was skipped in this way? Answer Unfortunately, I don't think a good estimate can be made for this, for two reasons: Many of the time skips move forward by an indeterminate amount of time. At one point, the Professor mentions localized regions of space skipping forward much more than others. We then see two young boys on the street below complaining about having to pay social security, only to suddenly become senior citizens and start complaining about wanting their money. Thus, each individual could have experienced a different amount of time skippage.

What is Tolkien trying to say in this letter?

In a draft of a letter, later recorded as #246, Tolkien makes a strange statement. I am interested in the first few sentences of the letter, but I will include the remainder for the sake of context. In the 'Mirror of Galadriel', 1381, it appears that Galadriel conceived of herself as capable of wielding the Ring and supplanting the Dark Lord. If so, so also were the other guardians of the Three, especially Elrond . But this is another matter. It was part of the essential deceit of the Ring to fill minds with imaginations of supreme power . But this the Great had well considered and had rejected, as is seen in Elrond's words at the Council. Galadriel's rejection of the temptation was founded upon previous thought and resolve. In any case Elrond or Galadriel would have proceeded in the policy now adopted by Sauron: they would have built up an empire with great and absolutely subservient generals and armies and engines of war, until they could challenge Sauron and destroy ...

harry potter - What is the difference between Diffindo and Sectumsempra?

In the Harry Potter books, Diffindo is called the 'Severing Charm' and it’s most commonly used to cut ropes and the like. However, in the last book Hermione uses it on Ron but misses, creating a 'slash in his jeans' and his knee gets cut, causing him to 'roar in pain'. We've only seen Sectumsempra used once on screen when Harry directly uses it on Malfoy in the sixth book, but there it's mentioned that he is 'waving his wand wildly'. Wouldn't Diffindo, if used in such a fashion also cause a similar effect? Similarly, if it was able to cut Ron, it would also be able to, say, chop off an ear (George's)? In that case, how are these two spells different, except for Sectumsempra seemingly used exclusively to hurt humans? Answer While Diffindo and Sectumsempra both can be countered by other spells, Diffindo is far more easily countered. Reparo, a relatively common spell, can completely reverse its effect when used once. “He pulled the old cop...

harry potter - How could Expelliarmus beat Avada Kedavra?

I want to be very careful about how I ask this question – I am not asking How did Voldemort die? [CLOSED] Below the text is the relevant passages from Harry Potter and the Deathly Hallows if anyone wants to review them (I'm sorry for the amount of text). How did Expelliarmus beat Avada Kedavra and kill Voldemort? I feel the reason Harry's Expelliarmus overpowered Voldemort's Avada Kedavra curse has to do with who was master of the Elder Wand and how the Elder Wand works. I've always had trouble understanding fully how the Elder Wand works, though. How much did the fact that Voldemort never truly won or mastered the Elder Wand factor into how Expelliarmus reacted to Avada Kedavra and caused Avada Kedavra to rebound and kill Voldemort? An answer based in book canon would be especially welcome, but any canon source really is fine. Harry heard the high voice shriek as he, too, yelled his best hope to the heavens, pointing Draco’s wand: ‘ Avada Kedavra !’ ‘ Expelliarmus !...