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the lord of the rings - How had Saruman "cheated" Sauron?



In the book The Two Towers, when Gandalf confronts Saruman after Isengard is destroyed, Gandalf urges Saruman to surrender, more or less, and lists the reasons why he should do so: Isengard is in ruins, your army is gone, your neighbors hate you, and "You have cheated your new master, or tried to do so". The "new master" is clearly Sauron; I'm not sure how Saruman "cheated" him (or tried to cheat him).


The movies are no help in this regard - there, Saruman is fully committed to siding with Sauron from the very beginning. In the books, Saruman initially seems to suggest that he and Gandalf should take the Ring, join forces, and use the power of the Ring against Sauron, but Gandalf is unreceptive to say the least. When the Orcs - some from Isengard, some from Moria, and some from Mordor - kidnap Merry and Pippin, they argue about their orders. The Isengarders are supposed to bring the hobbits to Saruman, the Mordor faction wants to bring them to Barad-Dur, and the Moria faction just wants to kill them and go home. None of the Orcs seem to know about the Ring, which Sauron and Saruman probably hope is being carried by one of the captured hobbits, but they know that the hobbits have something their respective bosses want.


I may have been influenced by having seen the movies before I read the books, but I assumed Saruman's intention was to get the Ring and give it to Sauron in an attempt to curry his favor. But if this was the case, Gandalf's statement makes no sense. Was Saruman only pretending to be Sauron's ally? Was he planning to use the Ring himself, against Sauron and everyone else on Middle-earth? How did he think that would work out?


This seems like a bizarre and idiotic plan, especially from someone known as "the Wise". It is my understanding that Sauron is the same class of being as the Wizards- a Maia - but of a far higher order or subclass than them. I can't imagine that the Ring could be used effectively against Sauron, even by a Wizard. Surely Saruman knows this on some level, or used to know it. Furthermore, if Saruman's plan was to steal the Ring and use it against Sauron, it was profoundly stupid of him to try to steal it in front of Sauron's own Orcs, who would undoubtedly inform their master of what had happened.


Is the scenario I just described - Saruman pretending to be Sauron's buddy, but secretly planning to steal and keep the Ring - what Gandalf meant when he accused Saruman of cheating his new master, or trying to do do? What did Saruman expect would come of this betrayal? What was his end game?



Answer



He's cheated Sauron in the sense that he's pretended to be looking for the Ring in order to give it to Sauron; in fact, as he lets Gandalf know quite early on, his plan is to keep it for himself:



'"And why not, Gandalf?" he whispered. "Why not? The Ruling Ring? If we could command that, then the Power would pass to us. That is in truth why I brought you here. For I have many eyes in my service, and I believe that you know where this precious thing now lies. Is it not so? Or why do the Nine ask for the Shire, and what is your business there?" As he said this a lust which he could not conceal shone suddenly in his eyes.


'"Saruman," I said, standing away from him, "only one hand at a time can wield the One, and you know that well, so do not trouble to say we! But I would not give it, nay, I would not give even news of it to you, now that I learn your mind. You were head of the Council, but you have unmasked yourself at last.'




(Fellowship of the Ring, Book II, Chapter 2, "The Council of Elrond"; emphasis added)


Saruman plans to find the Ring and wield it for himself, taking the power that Sauron put into it. Whether this plan would work is debatable at best; but Saruman might easily have deluded himself into thinking that it would work—even thought of the Ring seems to have allowed it to exert power over the thinker.


There's no particular reason to assume that Saruman is of a lower "sub-order" of Maiar than Sauron, at least within the strict bounds of what was developed at the time of The Lord of the Rings. Certainly the Istari were restricted in their power within the bounds of Arda, but I don't know whether this was a hard enforcement or not (whether they physically could not exert their full power, or were just told not to).


As far as whether the Orcs would tell Sauron of Saruman's taking the Ring, look at how the Orc of Mordor reacted to Sam who was merely carrying the Ring:



His will was too weak and slow to restrain his hand. It dragged at the chain and clutched the Ring. But Sam did not put it on; for even as he clasped it to his breast, an orc came clattering down. Leaping out of a dark opening at the right, it ran towards him. It was no more than six paces from him when, lifting its head, it saw him; and Sam could hear its gasping breath and see the glare in its bloodshot eyes. It stopped short aghast. For what it saw was not a small frightened hobbit trying to hold a steady sword: it saw a great silent shape, cloaked in a grey shadow, looming against the wavering light behind; in one hand it held a sword, the very light of which was a bitter pain, the other was clutched at its breast, but held concealed some nameless menace of power and doom.



(Return of the King, Book VI, Chapter 1, "The Tower of Cirith Ungol")


Saruman is no doubt aware that something of this sort would occur; and given the orcs' reaction to Sam, it's certainly reasonable for Saruman to believe that he could overmaster the Orcs' wills.



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