Skip to main content

harry potter - Why did the chambers in Philosophers Stone let people pass?


More specifically Severus's chamber. One part of his riddle read:



One among us seven will let you move ahead,



If the whole point of guarding something, is so someone couldn't get it, why let or give someone the chance to advance, to get the object? It doesn't make sense does it? Why give someone the chance to get the object?


You may say, "So that the teachers (or Dumbledore) can retrieve it when needed."



However if the teachers made the chambers, they would create it in such a way, that only them (or any other selected people) could get past it.


OR


They would create it in such a way, that they could "hack" it, and pass the information to selected people.


Other chambers include Filius's, and Minerva's. (The flying keys, and the chessboard) These both give someone the chance to let someone pass.



Answer



It is Dumbledore that have planed this all the way.


He is the one that ask specific teachers to put there own "trap" in each of the chambers. He chose the teachers in this specific way because he knew that Harry, Hermione and Ron all together could break the spells and traps of all the room.


And the last "trap" or spell and non the less, The Dumbledore spell to be able to obtain the stone.



"It was one of my more brilliant ideas, and between you and me, that's saying something. You see, only one who wanted to find the Stone--find it, but not use it--would be able to get it, otherwise they'd just see themselves making gold or drinking Elixir of Life. My brain surprises even me sometimes..." -- Albus Dumbledore




The chambers would let people pass but not anyone, so he knew that all these traps could be unlocked by the cooperation of Harry and his 2 friends, even before they've met each others.


So if someone other than these 3 students were to pass, at the end, no one but Harry could get their hands on the Philosopher's stone.


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

Why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize Missy right away?

So after it was established that Missy is actually both the Master, and the "woman in the shop" who gave Clara the TARDIS number... ...why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize her right away? I remember the Tenth Doctor in The Sound of Drums stating that Timelords had a way of recognizing other Timelords no matter if they had regenerated. And Clara should have recognized her as well... I'm hoping for a better explanation than "Moffat screwed up", and that I actually missed something after two watchthroughs of the episode. Answer There seems to be a lot of in-canon uncertainty as to the extent to which Time Lords can recognise one another which far pre-dates Moffat's tenure. From the Time Lords page on Wikipedia : Whether or not Time Lords can recognise each other across regenerations is not made entirely clear: In The War Games, the War Chief recognises the Second Doctor despite his regeneration and it is implied that the Doctor knows him when they fir

the lord of the rings - Why is Gimli allowed to travel to Valinor?

Gimli was allowed to go to Valinor despite not being a ring bearer. Is this explained in detail or just with the one line "for his love for Galadriel"? Answer There's not much detail about this aside from what's said in Appendix A to Return of the King: We have heard tell that Legolas took Gimli Glóin's son with him because of their great friendship, greater than any that has been between Elf and Dwarf. If this is true, then it is strange indeed: that a Dwarf should be willing to leave Middle-earth for any love, or that the Eldar should receive him, or that the Lords of the West should permit it. But it is said that Gimli went also out of desire to see again the beauty of Galadriel; and it may be that she, being mighty among the Eldar, obtained this grace for him. More cannot be said of this matter. And Appendix B: Then Legolas built a grey ship in Ithilien, and sailed down Anduin and so over Sea; and with him, it is said, went Gimli the Dwarf . And when that sh

What is the etymology of Doctor Who?

I recently decided to watch Doctor Who, and started viewing the 2005 version. I have the first two episodes from the first season, and I can't help but wonder what is the etymology of the name "Doctor Who"? And why does the protagonist call himself "the Doctor" (or is it "the doctor")? Answer In the very first episode of Doctor Who (way back in 1963), the Doctor has a granddaughter going by the name "Susan Foreman", and the junkyard where the TARDIS is has the sign "I.M. Foreman". Barbara, who becomes one of the Doctor's companions, calls him "Doctor Foreman" (probably assuming that is his name given his relationship to Susan), and Ian (another early companion) does the same in the second episode, to which the Doctor says: Eh? Doctor who? What's he talking about? "Foreman" is most likely selected as a convenient surname for Susan to use because it happened to be on display near where the TARDIS landed.