Skip to main content

harry potter - Why Was Hagrid's Wand Snapped?


Why was Hagrid's wand snapped in two when he was expelled from Hogwarts? Why was he banned from performing magic? Yes, he was expelled from Hogwarts after being framed by Tom Riddle as being responsible for Moaning Myrtle's death via Aragog the Acromantula. But why did he receive this punishment?



‘What’ve you been feeding [the pumpkins]?’ said Harry.

Hagrid looked over his shoulder to check that they were alone. ‘Well, I’ve bin givin’ them – you know – a bit o’ help.’

Harry noticed Hagrid’s flowery pink umbrella leaning against the back wall of the cabin. Harry had had reason to believe before now that this umbrella was not all it looked; in fact, he had the strong impression that Hagrid’s old school wand was concealed inside it. Hagrid wasn’t supposed to use magic. He had been expelled from Hogwarts in his third year[...]

Chamber of Secrets - page 90 - Bloomsbury - chapter 7, Mudbloods and Murmurs



Why would Hagrid's wand be snapped in two and he not be allowed to do magic when:



  • Attendance and completion of an education at Hogwarts was not compulsory by wizarding law¹; homeschooled children were allowed to do magic for their lessons, and then do magic fully when they turned 17.

  • The Weasley twins dropped out of Hogwarts after practically destroying parts of the castle with fireworks (and conjuring an awesome swamp on the fifth floor), yet were allowed to do magic despite not completing Hogwarts or any kind of homeschooling curriculum (that we know of).

  • No Death Eater character that we know off was banned from using magic, despite their crimes and devotion to Voldemort. I don't recall any Death Eater wands being snapped and the owner banned from performing magic after being convicted of Death Eater crimes (Please do correct me if I'm wrong.). For example, Bellatrix Lestrange's wand was not snapped in Goblet of Fire when she received a life sentence in Azkaban and, as we know, her wand played a fairly significant part in Deathly Hallows.



¹I realize in Deathly Hallows Voldemort made attendance at Hogwarts compulsory; however, by that time, Hagrid had been cleared of the charges of being responsible for Myrtle's death and was allowed to use magic again.



Answer




Why Was Hagrid's Wand Snapped?



And



Why was he banned from performing magic?




Because Hagrid, apparently, commited murder. This is very logical, I mean: you don't want to leave a murderer with a wand nor do any magic.


In fact, it surprises me that he didn't end up in Azkaban (for Myrtle's murder) as well. It is very likely that Dumbledore fought against this imprisonment (or was he actually sent and I just forgot? Perhaps...)



Attendance and completion of an education at Hogwarts was not compulsory by wizarding law¹; homeschooled children were allowed to do magic for their lessons, and then do magic fully when they turned 17.



That is okay, because the children won't go out murdering people.



The Weasley twins dropped out of Hogwarts after practically destroying parts of the castle with fireworks (and conjuring an awesome swamp on the fifth floor), yet were allowed to do magic despite not completing Hogwarts or any kind of homeschooling curriculum (that we know of).



Yeah, but they did not commit murder. Also note that when they did that, Hogwarts was under a very... unusual administration. Clearly Umbridge could have tried to charge them, but shortly the administration returned to Dumbledore, who would, very likely, remove any charges from Hogwarts to the twins.




No Death Eater character that we know off was banned from using magic, despite their crimes and devotion to Voldemort.



All Death Eaters that the ministry recognizes as Death Eaters were actually sent to Azkaban. The Death Eaters that were not sent (and thus kept their wands) like Lucius are those who lied to the ministry saying they were under the imperius curse or something like that.


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

Why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize Missy right away?

So after it was established that Missy is actually both the Master, and the "woman in the shop" who gave Clara the TARDIS number... ...why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize her right away? I remember the Tenth Doctor in The Sound of Drums stating that Timelords had a way of recognizing other Timelords no matter if they had regenerated. And Clara should have recognized her as well... I'm hoping for a better explanation than "Moffat screwed up", and that I actually missed something after two watchthroughs of the episode. Answer There seems to be a lot of in-canon uncertainty as to the extent to which Time Lords can recognise one another which far pre-dates Moffat's tenure. From the Time Lords page on Wikipedia : Whether or not Time Lords can recognise each other across regenerations is not made entirely clear: In The War Games, the War Chief recognises the Second Doctor despite his regeneration and it is implied that the Doctor knows him when they fir

Did the gatekeeper and the keymaster get intimate in Ghostbusters?

According to TVTropes ( usual warning, don't follow the link or you'll waste half your life in a twisty maze of content ): In Ghostbusters, it's strongly implied that Dana Barret, while possessed by Zuul the Gatekeeper, had sex with Louis Tully, who was possessed by Vinz Clortho the Keymaster (key, gate, get it?), in order to free Big Bad Gozer. In fact, a deleted scene from the movie has Venkman explicitly asking Dana if she and Louis "did it". I turned the quote into a spoiler since it contains really poor-taste joke, but the gist of it is that it's implied that as part of freeing Gozer , the two characters possessed by the Keymaster and the Gatekeeper had sex. Is there any canon confirmation or denial of this theory (canon meaning something from creators' interviews, DVD commentary, script, delete scenes etc...)? Answer The Richard Mueller novelisation and both versions of the script strongly suggest that they didn't have sex (or at the very l

the lord of the rings - Why is Gimli allowed to travel to Valinor?

Gimli was allowed to go to Valinor despite not being a ring bearer. Is this explained in detail or just with the one line "for his love for Galadriel"? Answer There's not much detail about this aside from what's said in Appendix A to Return of the King: We have heard tell that Legolas took Gimli Glóin's son with him because of their great friendship, greater than any that has been between Elf and Dwarf. If this is true, then it is strange indeed: that a Dwarf should be willing to leave Middle-earth for any love, or that the Eldar should receive him, or that the Lords of the West should permit it. But it is said that Gimli went also out of desire to see again the beauty of Galadriel; and it may be that she, being mighty among the Eldar, obtained this grace for him. More cannot be said of this matter. And Appendix B: Then Legolas built a grey ship in Ithilien, and sailed down Anduin and so over Sea; and with him, it is said, went Gimli the Dwarf . And when that sh

fan fiction - Does the Interdict of Merlin appear in original Harry Potter canon?

In Harry Potter and the Methods of Rationality by Eliezer Yudkowsky a concept called the ' Interdict of Merlin ' appears: (all emphasis added) Chapter 23: His hand on the doorknob, Harry Potter already inside and waiting, wearing his cowled cloak. "The ancient first-year spells," Harry Potter said. "What did you find?" "They're no more powerful than the spells we use now." Harry Potter's fist struck a desk, hard. "Damn it. All right. My own experiment was a failure, Draco. There's something called the Interdict of Merlin -" Draco hit himself on the forehead, realizing. "- which stops anyone from getting knowledge of powerful spells out of books, even if you find and read a powerful wizard's notes they won't make sense to you, it has to go from one living mind to another. I couldn't find any powerful spells that we had the instructions for but couldn't cast. But if you can't get them out of old books,