Skip to main content

game of thrones - What's the Valyrian word for “password”?


I suppose there is a Valyrian word for “password”. Is it known/documented somewhere?



Answer



Forgetting, for the moment, looking for a translation for 'password' and instead looking at how the sentence 'all passwords must die' works:


The phrase 'udrir morghulis' ('udir' means 'word' and so 'udrir' means 'all words') doesn't technically translate to saying 'all words must die' but actually states the 'fact' that 'all words die' - 'valar morghulis' is actually the fact that 'all men die' (interesting and irrelevant aside: this explicitly excludes women - the phrase 'all people die' is actually 'abrar morghulis', which is also 'all women die'). Being extremely pedantic, it's really stating the fact that 'all men are currently going towards death'


So, there are a few ways to go about this:




  1. Create a valyrian word for password and put this in the statement that 'all passwords are going towards death'

  2. Create a valyrian word for password and put this in the command that 'all passwords must die' (easy once 1. has been done)

  3. Create a statement that says something along the lines of 'all words that allow passage die'

  4. Create a command that says something along the lines of 'all words that allow passage must die'


To create a recognisable meme or somesuch, 1. would be the best option.


First of all, creating something to mean password: the verb 'to pass' is 'rēbagon' and the noun 'word' is 'udir', so the simplest hack is just to use 'rēb' (the stem) and add 'udir' to the end. So The Valyrian word for 'password' is (probably) 'rēbudir' Proncounced [reː'budir] and is a 5th declension, aquatic noun.



As 'morghūljagon' is a consonant-final verb, commanding all passwords to die is given by 'rēbudrirzi morghūljās'



Now, forgetting about the word for 'password', translating the phrase 'all words that allow passage':



  • As before, 'all words' = 'udrir'

  • 'to allow' = 'gaomagon' (consonant-final, stem = 'gaom')


  • 'to pass' = 'rēbagon' (consonant-final, stem = 'rēb')


    Turning this into a relative clause (see comments) gives 'rēbagon gaomis luor udrir' as 'all words which allow to pass'.




So, the phrase 'all words that allow to pass are going to death' is 'rēbagon gaomis luor udrir morghūlis' and giving permission for 'all words that allow to pass may die' is 'rēbagon gaomis luor udrir morghūlis kostas'



Finally, turning this into a command gives 'all words that allow to pass must die [go to death]' as 'rēbagon gaomis luos udrirzi morghūljās'


All of the information used above has been taken from the Tongues of Ice and Fire Wiki


For completeness (unnecessary as it was pre-edit, but potentially interesting):


The word 'passage' (or anything that's equivalent) is the noun of the verb 'to pass', which is 'rēbagon' as before. To turn this into a noun, just add 'non' to the stem:



  • 'passage' = 'rēbnon' (3rd declension, terrestrial)


Putting 'word' as the subject and 'passage' as the object creates the phrase 'udrir rēbnon gaomisi' as 'words allowing passage'. 'current words allowing passage' would be 'udrir rēbnon gaomis'


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

harry potter - Do the Kwikspell courses work?

In Harry Potter we are introduced to Kwikspell course in The Chamber of Secrets (and never hear about it again). We see Filch taking courses, presumably by mail. The descriptions of Kwikspell make me think it is for people who are weak in magic (kind of like how Neville was supposed to be when he was younger), but had magic in them nonetheless. However, Ron's comments later in the chapter make it sound like it is mainly for Squibs to learn magic. However, it is strongly implied through out all the books that Squibs are essentially Muggles, and will never be able to do magic. How then is a Kwikspell course supposed to work? Do we have any information to know if it works at all? Is it a scam? An answer from any level of canon is welcome. Answer Kwikspell courses are (probably) useful to some wizards, but not to squibs. The Kwikspell course literature comes with two testimonials. Madam Z. Nettles of Topsham writes: ‘I had no memory for incantations and my potions were a family joke...

futurama - How much time is lost in 'Time Keeps on Slippin''

In time Keeps on Slippin' , Farnsworth creates a basketball team which he matures by abusing Chronitons. This leads to time skipping forward by random, but ever increasing amounts. How much time was skipped in this way? Answer Unfortunately, I don't think a good estimate can be made for this, for two reasons: Many of the time skips move forward by an indeterminate amount of time. At one point, the Professor mentions localized regions of space skipping forward much more than others. We then see two young boys on the street below complaining about having to pay social security, only to suddenly become senior citizens and start complaining about wanting their money. Thus, each individual could have experienced a different amount of time skippage.

languages - Do we ever see written English in the Star Wars films?

In Empire Strikes Back , we see a transcription of what R2's beeps and bloops mean, but it's not English (sorry for the low quality, it's from the 2004 DVDs): I'd assume it's what Basic looks like when written, but is there some point in the the Star Wars films we see written English instead? (This sort of spun off from a discussion in How do people understand astromech droids? .) Answer At one point there was English but it has been phased out in subsequent versions of the films. Chris Gould at DVD Active did a comparison of all versions of each of the Star Wars films, and in his comparison of Episode 4 , there are a couple of screenshots showing how the power gauge for the Death Star tractor beam was changed. I imagine there are probably more to be found in his other comparisons but I haven't got around to reading those yet.

Was the "pure soul" of Harry's what had really hurt Voldemort?

In the Order of the Phoenix, Voldemort possesses Harry, and it hurts. Greatly. I think that Dumbledore explained that it was because Voldemort's rotten soul was incapable of assimilating Harry's pure soul, that Voldemort didn't understand the love and friendship etc that Harry has in his heart. But, I think it was a lie. Remember that in Deathly Hallows, while looking for information regarding Horcruxes, it is discovered that it is in fact possible to merge a soul fragment back, but that the process was extremely painful. Now then, if Voldemort tried to possess Harry, and Harry had a fragment of Voldemort's soul, I think that it could have been the true cause of Voldemort's pain: the fact of having his soul so close of another fragment. I think that Dumbledore knew that fact, but had to lie to Harry because it was inappropriate to let him know that he had one of Voldemort's soul fragments at the moment. Is that right? Or was it truly the pure soul of Harry's...