Skip to main content

tolkiens legendarium - What is the ‘babelfish effect’ when Bilbo puts on the Ring and understands the spiders?


In the movie Hobbit, The Desolation of Smaug, the band enter Mirkwood and are attacked by giant spiders.


In the movie the spiders appear to ‘chitter’ to one another. After Bilbo puts on the Ring, the chittering stops and he can hear them talking to themselves and each other.


My question is, is there any explanation in the Hobbit, LoTR, Silmarillion or other letters for the 'babelfish effect' when Bilbo puts on the Ring and understands the spiders?



Answer



I don't recall that happening the The Hobbit, but when Sam puts on the Ring in the Lord of the Rings, he is able to understand the speech of Orcs.



He heard them both clearly, and he understood what they said. Perhaps the Ring gave understanding of tongues, or simply understanding, especially of the servants of Sauron its maker, so that if he gave heed, he understood and translated the thought to himself.




This is from the "Choices of Master Samwise" chapter in The Two Towers. As far as I know, this is the best answer we get, and it seems like the narrator (or rather, the writer of the Red Book) is speculating, but it seems that the Ring does indeed have a "babelfish" effect on its bearer, as you put it. Thought it is presented speculatively, it does make a lot of sense.


When Sauron forged the Ring he put much of his "strength and will" and "inherent power" into the Ring (Of the Rings of Power and the Third Age). That's why destroying the Ring destroyed Sauron. And the understanding of the thought behind speech is one of the powers of the Ainur. In fact, it was something all rational beings in Middle-Earth were capable of. For example, when Elf Finrod first met Men:



Now the Eldar were beyond all other peoples skilled on tongues; and Felegund discovered also that he could read in the minds of Men such thoughts as they wished to reveal in speech, so that their words were easily interpreted.



Or when the Fellowship encountered Galadriel, she read their thoughts even without them intending to speak:



And with that word she held them with her eyes, and in silence looked at each of them in turn. None save Aragorn and Leogolas could long endure her glance. [...] 'Maybe it was only a test, and she thought to read our thoughts for her own good purpose.'



Even Denethor, a Man, was capable of doing so. Gandalf, speaking to Pippin, commenting on Denethor's shrewd questioning:




'He is not as other men of this time, Pippin, and whatever be his descent from father to son, by some chance the blood of Westernesse runs nearly true in him; as it does in his other son, Faramir, and yet did not in Boromir whom he loved best. He has long sight. He can perceive, if he bends his will thither, much of what is passing in the minds of men, even those that dwell far off. It is difficult to deceive him, and dangerous to try.



Tolkien discussed the ability behind this at some length in a manuscript published in the Vinyar Tengwar #39. But at any rate, since Sauron possesses this ability as well, and he poured his power into the Ring, it only makes sense that others wielding the Ring would also have their abilities in that area enhanced.


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

Why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize Missy right away?

So after it was established that Missy is actually both the Master, and the "woman in the shop" who gave Clara the TARDIS number... ...why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize her right away? I remember the Tenth Doctor in The Sound of Drums stating that Timelords had a way of recognizing other Timelords no matter if they had regenerated. And Clara should have recognized her as well... I'm hoping for a better explanation than "Moffat screwed up", and that I actually missed something after two watchthroughs of the episode. Answer There seems to be a lot of in-canon uncertainty as to the extent to which Time Lords can recognise one another which far pre-dates Moffat's tenure. From the Time Lords page on Wikipedia : Whether or not Time Lords can recognise each other across regenerations is not made entirely clear: In The War Games, the War Chief recognises the Second Doctor despite his regeneration and it is implied that the Doctor knows him when they fir

the lord of the rings - Why is Gimli allowed to travel to Valinor?

Gimli was allowed to go to Valinor despite not being a ring bearer. Is this explained in detail or just with the one line "for his love for Galadriel"? Answer There's not much detail about this aside from what's said in Appendix A to Return of the King: We have heard tell that Legolas took Gimli Glóin's son with him because of their great friendship, greater than any that has been between Elf and Dwarf. If this is true, then it is strange indeed: that a Dwarf should be willing to leave Middle-earth for any love, or that the Eldar should receive him, or that the Lords of the West should permit it. But it is said that Gimli went also out of desire to see again the beauty of Galadriel; and it may be that she, being mighty among the Eldar, obtained this grace for him. More cannot be said of this matter. And Appendix B: Then Legolas built a grey ship in Ithilien, and sailed down Anduin and so over Sea; and with him, it is said, went Gimli the Dwarf . And when that sh

Did the gatekeeper and the keymaster get intimate in Ghostbusters?

According to TVTropes ( usual warning, don't follow the link or you'll waste half your life in a twisty maze of content ): In Ghostbusters, it's strongly implied that Dana Barret, while possessed by Zuul the Gatekeeper, had sex with Louis Tully, who was possessed by Vinz Clortho the Keymaster (key, gate, get it?), in order to free Big Bad Gozer. In fact, a deleted scene from the movie has Venkman explicitly asking Dana if she and Louis "did it". I turned the quote into a spoiler since it contains really poor-taste joke, but the gist of it is that it's implied that as part of freeing Gozer , the two characters possessed by the Keymaster and the Gatekeeper had sex. Is there any canon confirmation or denial of this theory (canon meaning something from creators' interviews, DVD commentary, script, delete scenes etc...)? Answer The Richard Mueller novelisation and both versions of the script strongly suggest that they didn't have sex (or at the very l

What is the etymology of Doctor Who?

I recently decided to watch Doctor Who, and started viewing the 2005 version. I have the first two episodes from the first season, and I can't help but wonder what is the etymology of the name "Doctor Who"? And why does the protagonist call himself "the Doctor" (or is it "the doctor")? Answer In the very first episode of Doctor Who (way back in 1963), the Doctor has a granddaughter going by the name "Susan Foreman", and the junkyard where the TARDIS is has the sign "I.M. Foreman". Barbara, who becomes one of the Doctor's companions, calls him "Doctor Foreman" (probably assuming that is his name given his relationship to Susan), and Ian (another early companion) does the same in the second episode, to which the Doctor says: Eh? Doctor who? What's he talking about? "Foreman" is most likely selected as a convenient surname for Susan to use because it happened to be on display near where the TARDIS landed.