Skip to main content

harry potter - Why aren't Muggles extinct?


One of the basic premises of the Potterverse is that Muggles are much, much more common than wizards. This is what in part necessitates the need for the Wizarding world to hide itself away because, despite their superior powers, they would be overwhelmed by the far more massive Muggle population should conflict break out.


However, we also know that wizards and witches have been around a long time. In Prisoner of Azkaban, Hermione's letter mentions:



I bet he’s learning loads, I’m really jealous – the ancient Egyptian wizards were fascinating.




Given that in one of Ron's letters, the Pyramids were mentioned as magical locations, this means that while we don't have a definitive date of when wizardry entered the world, we can definitively say that wizards and witches have been around since at least 2500 B.C. Most likely they have been around much longer than that.


I could not find any evidence that suggests that magical people reproduce any faster or slower than a Muggle. Furthermore, being born to magical parents almost always means the child will also be magical (Squibs are considered very rare). While I don't have statistical evidence, it seems that merely having only one magical parent is enough to make it likely that the child will have magical abilities - based on Severus Snape, Seamus Finnigan, and of course, Tom Marvolo Riddle. Finally, there are of course Muggle-Borns, which while they are certainly very rare as a percentage of the Muggle population, they seem quite common enough at Hogwarts.


Finally, it's fairly easy to make the argument that Wizards are more powerful than Muggles in ancient times, given the lack of Muggle technology. In the modern era, there are arguments that Muggle weapons have exceeded Wizarding power, though there is not total consensus on this. It would be hard to argue, however, that Muggles had superior power (via technology) than Wizards prior to the 20th century.


In summary:



  • Magical people have been around for at least 4500 years, probably longer.

  • Magical people reproduce at roughly the same rate as Muggles.

  • For most of history, magical people have had superior power to Muggles.



The question:


Given these reasons, why is is it that the Wizarding population does not dominate the human population via natural selection?


In-universe answer only, please. I'm not looking for a "J.K. Rowling is bad at maths" kind of answer.



Answer



We don't need to argue about reproductive fitness to explain this.


Here in the real world, the fertility rate falls off as the standard of living increases. Until quite recently, the magical community has had a much higher standard of living than Muggles. (Arguably, they still do!) So we would expect their fertility rate, historically, to be similar to our modern rate.


The current British fertility rate is 1.87 births per woman. It was about 2.9 births per woman at one point in the 1960s; it was probably higher still earlier on, but let's take that as a reasonable number for Muggle fertility, and the current number as a proxy for Magical fertility. (It seems reasonable, perhaps even a little too high, based on what we know from the books.)


Suppose that on average one in every two magical people marry Muggles; that seems like a slightly high estimate to me, but let's go with it for now. That would increase the number of couples in the magical community by 50%, e.g., if the birth rate was exactly 2 the effective birth rate would be 3:


50% of Wizards marrying Muggles increases the effective fertility rate 50%


That makes the effective birth rate about 2.8, nearly but not quite keeping up with the nominal Muggle rate of 2.9.



Obviously this all depends on what numbers you choose. But it is plausible.




Addendum:


As PlasmaHH and Adam point out in the comments, fertility rate isn't really the best statistic to be using here, because it doesn't take into account the number of people dying before reaching reproductive age. However, I don't think this makes my argument implausible, just slightly more subtle: you have to take into consideration that fertility may be affected by both mortality rates and standard of living.


(In particular, I don't believe the mortality rate for children has changed enough since 1960 to explain more than a fraction of the drop in the fertility rate over the same period, so those figures are probably still good enough to establish plausibility.)


The effect of mortality rates on fertility can be expected to cancel itself out, leaving only the standard-of-living effect as relevant. It seems reasonable to suppose that the adjusted fertility rates (counting only children who survive to reproduce) might remain different enough to counteract the growth rate of the magical community due to Wizard-Muggle marriages.




References: this Google chart based on data from the World Bank.


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

harry potter - Do the Kwikspell courses work?

In Harry Potter we are introduced to Kwikspell course in The Chamber of Secrets (and never hear about it again). We see Filch taking courses, presumably by mail. The descriptions of Kwikspell make me think it is for people who are weak in magic (kind of like how Neville was supposed to be when he was younger), but had magic in them nonetheless. However, Ron's comments later in the chapter make it sound like it is mainly for Squibs to learn magic. However, it is strongly implied through out all the books that Squibs are essentially Muggles, and will never be able to do magic. How then is a Kwikspell course supposed to work? Do we have any information to know if it works at all? Is it a scam? An answer from any level of canon is welcome. Answer Kwikspell courses are (probably) useful to some wizards, but not to squibs. The Kwikspell course literature comes with two testimonials. Madam Z. Nettles of Topsham writes: ‘I had no memory for incantations and my potions were a family joke...

futurama - How much time is lost in 'Time Keeps on Slippin''

In time Keeps on Slippin' , Farnsworth creates a basketball team which he matures by abusing Chronitons. This leads to time skipping forward by random, but ever increasing amounts. How much time was skipped in this way? Answer Unfortunately, I don't think a good estimate can be made for this, for two reasons: Many of the time skips move forward by an indeterminate amount of time. At one point, the Professor mentions localized regions of space skipping forward much more than others. We then see two young boys on the street below complaining about having to pay social security, only to suddenly become senior citizens and start complaining about wanting their money. Thus, each individual could have experienced a different amount of time skippage.

star wars - What "exactly" happens when someone turns to the Dark Side?

When I saw the original Star Wars saga as a kid, the concept of the Dark Side imprinted in me was quite simple. You did a bad thing, so you're a bad person so you go to the Dark Side and keep doing bad things. Now, obviously this doesn't hold true in reality. In my mind it is perfectly reasonable for Luke to kill the Emperor and Vader and then just flee the Death Star and rejoin the Alliance. After all they are at war, those are enemy officers that have captured him and are taunting him by threatening with death of all loved ones and the whole operation was intended to kill the Emperor anyway. The same would hold true for Anakin. He could have killed Mace Windu to save the Chancellor and Padme but that doesn't mean he's going to then go mad and kill all Jedis including children. It doesn't add up from a merely psychological point of view. He had a set of objectives and that made him want to keep the Chancellor alive (quite valid by the way, Mace Windu is quite clums...

star trek - Warning regarding forward saucer section in Nemesis?

In Star Trek: Nemesis , just before the Enterprise rams into the Scimitar, Picard sends a text message from his captain's chair arm pad to Troi — who is manning the helm in lieu of the crewman who was just blown out through what was once the view screen — indicating that she should put full impulse on standby. (Literally, if you watch the scene closely, Troi's console prefaces the order with "TXT MSG" !) My question is: Did Picard also somehow warn crew members in the forward saucer section about what was about to happen? The ramming of the Scimitar was a heat of the moment decision. Considering that he also resorted to calling the auto-destruct sequence shortly after (which ended up being offline), he probably was of the mindset that any losses would be acceptable in order to hault Shinzon's march to Earth. Still, I'm curious. Answer The original script indicates that he called for the crew to " brace for impact ". Whether that call (or the comma...