Skip to main content

harry potter - Why did Dumbledore make it less difficult to get to the Sorcerer's Stone?


The Sorcerer's/Philosopher's Stone was removed from Gringotts to be placed under the most impenetrable of protections at Hogwarts under Dumbledore's custody. But it seems clear Dumbledore took protections which could have been impenetrable, and deliberately made them less so, such that at best they would only slightly slow down anybody trying to access the Stone, rather than just plain block them.


For example, after the Devil's Snare, you have a locked door enchanted such that it cannot be opened by any charm or other means except its own assigned key. That's a great protection, potentially an impassable barrier if the key is not available.


But the key is then left right there in front of the door in the same room.


At least the key is flying around the ceiling. But there are broomsticks right there in the same room, too.


The room with the fires front and back—that could also have been a solid defense—deadly fires that cannot be passed through unless you drink very specific potions tailored to each particular fire's properties.


Except that those potions providing safety are put right there in the same room.


At least, perhaps, they're surrounded by other bottles, some of which contain poison. With no way to know which bottle is safe, that could still almost be a solid protection.


Except that a piece of paper with a logic puzzle detailing exactly which bottles are which is put on the table with them.


Dumbledore always had reasons, and those reasons were always virtuous. What was he up to, deliberately weakening the protections in this way?




Answer



I've always thought it was because he was using it as a test for Harry. It seemed very appropriate for his and his friends' specific talents and he didn't try very hard to keep kids out of there. Also, Gringotts may have been broken into a few times, but surely it's still far more secure than Hogwarts, which seems to be infiltrated constantly, as well as holding some of the children of Voldemort's supporters, who could have broken through.


Sure, you could only get it from Erised if you didn't want to use it yourself, but arguably, you would have been able to get it if you just wanted to obtain it for Voldemort. Also, given my personal theory that it was all a test to see Harry's abilities - bear in mind that Harry already knew about the Mirror of Erised, and Dumbledore and he had talked about it - it makes sense to use a final obstacle that Harry, with his already existing knowledge of the mirror could have worked out.


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

languages - Do we ever see written English in the Star Wars films?

In Empire Strikes Back , we see a transcription of what R2's beeps and bloops mean, but it's not English (sorry for the low quality, it's from the 2004 DVDs): I'd assume it's what Basic looks like when written, but is there some point in the the Star Wars films we see written English instead? (This sort of spun off from a discussion in How do people understand astromech droids? .) Answer At one point there was English but it has been phased out in subsequent versions of the films. Chris Gould at DVD Active did a comparison of all versions of each of the Star Wars films, and in his comparison of Episode 4 , there are a couple of screenshots showing how the power gauge for the Death Star tractor beam was changed. I imagine there are probably more to be found in his other comparisons but I haven't got around to reading those yet.

Was the "pure soul" of Harry's what had really hurt Voldemort?

In the Order of the Phoenix, Voldemort possesses Harry, and it hurts. Greatly. I think that Dumbledore explained that it was because Voldemort's rotten soul was incapable of assimilating Harry's pure soul, that Voldemort didn't understand the love and friendship etc that Harry has in his heart. But, I think it was a lie. Remember that in Deathly Hallows, while looking for information regarding Horcruxes, it is discovered that it is in fact possible to merge a soul fragment back, but that the process was extremely painful. Now then, if Voldemort tried to possess Harry, and Harry had a fragment of Voldemort's soul, I think that it could have been the true cause of Voldemort's pain: the fact of having his soul so close of another fragment. I think that Dumbledore knew that fact, but had to lie to Harry because it was inappropriate to let him know that he had one of Voldemort's soul fragments at the moment. Is that right? Or was it truly the pure soul of Harry's...

star wars - What "exactly" happens when someone turns to the Dark Side?

When I saw the original Star Wars saga as a kid, the concept of the Dark Side imprinted in me was quite simple. You did a bad thing, so you're a bad person so you go to the Dark Side and keep doing bad things. Now, obviously this doesn't hold true in reality. In my mind it is perfectly reasonable for Luke to kill the Emperor and Vader and then just flee the Death Star and rejoin the Alliance. After all they are at war, those are enemy officers that have captured him and are taunting him by threatening with death of all loved ones and the whole operation was intended to kill the Emperor anyway. The same would hold true for Anakin. He could have killed Mace Windu to save the Chancellor and Padme but that doesn't mean he's going to then go mad and kill all Jedis including children. It doesn't add up from a merely psychological point of view. He had a set of objectives and that made him want to keep the Chancellor alive (quite valid by the way, Mace Windu is quite clums...

star trek - Warning regarding forward saucer section in Nemesis?

In Star Trek: Nemesis , just before the Enterprise rams into the Scimitar, Picard sends a text message from his captain's chair arm pad to Troi — who is manning the helm in lieu of the crewman who was just blown out through what was once the view screen — indicating that she should put full impulse on standby. (Literally, if you watch the scene closely, Troi's console prefaces the order with "TXT MSG" !) My question is: Did Picard also somehow warn crew members in the forward saucer section about what was about to happen? The ramming of the Scimitar was a heat of the moment decision. Considering that he also resorted to calling the auto-destruct sequence shortly after (which ended up being offline), he probably was of the mindset that any losses would be acceptable in order to hault Shinzon's march to Earth. Still, I'm curious. Answer The original script indicates that he called for the crew to " brace for impact ". Whether that call (or the comma...