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Why didn't Harry Potter anonymously give money to Ron, at least for important stuff like a non-broken wand?


So, for an entire CoS book, Ron, Harry's best friend, is majorly struggling in life and wizarding education because his wand broke because of Harry - and because his family's too poor to get him a replacement.



I can buy that Harry wouldn't feel comfortable just giving Ron money in general, even if he wanted to.


But he felt comfortable enough to do it obliquely - witness beginning of Book 1 when he orders enough sweets on the train to feed BOTH of them.


So, why couldn't Harry either:




  • Send money to Mr. Weasley, explain that it was entirely his fault that the wand was broken (yes, I know he didn't know about that fact till the end of the book when Dobby fessed up, but he could have made 'it's my fault' up all the same), and as act of contrition, ask him to buy Ron a new wand.




  • Send the money to Weasley's anonymously, stating that this is from Ron's secret admirer for a new wand.


    "He didn't know how" doesn't pass muster - he has Hermione and teachers he can ask.



    Heck, he could have just sent it through the teachers ( McGonagall) as well, so Weasley's would have less hesitation to refuse.




I would strongly prefer in-Universe or word-of-god answers. Speculation is OK but must be extensively based on the former.




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