Skip to main content

Why Did the Machines Even Bother With a Matrix?


Agent Smith, in the first Matrix movie (The Matrix) talks about how the machines originally created a paradise setting and humans didn't accept it, so it went back and created a more realistic one that humans would accept.


The human bodies, as we've seen, are kept in tanks and the body is kept asleep. But why did the Matrix need to provide any kind of simulation for the brain to experience? Why couldn't it have just kept all humans in a medically induced coma? Or performed something equivalent to a lobotomy on every human?


Why did the Matrix need to spend the resources to keep the humans in good mental shape?







Answer



Referring to the various canon sources, we can see a number of reasons why the machines chose to create a Matrix for the humans rather than simply using cows or pigs;



At the end of the sequence "Second Renaissance - Part II", we see the machine negotiator at the UN receiving (and accepting) the Human negotiator's "Instrument of Surrender". He states his sole pre-condition, that the humans will "Hand over your flesh".


Although the machines are shown to be creatively vicious, there is no indication whatsoever that they intend to renege on the agreement and kill all the remaining humans.





Comic Canon


Regarding the reason why the machine don't simply use cows; In the story "Goliath" written by Neil Gaiman we learn that the humans are being used not only for their electrical energy but also that the Machines are using humans as memory storage and processing units.




What's going on?" I asked. "Do you know?" "Enemy missile took out a central processing unit," he said. "Two hundred thousand people, hooked up in parallel, blown to dead meat. We've got a mirror going of course, and we'll have it all up and running again in no time flat. You're just free-floating here for a couple of nanoseconds, while we get London processing again."



Additionally, the machines then use a human pilot (in an attempt to avert an invasion by aliens) because he is a more capable pilot than the machines themselves are able to provide;



"Why me?" "Well," he said, "the short answer is that you were designed to do this. We've improved a little on the basic human design in your case. You're bigger. You're much faster. You have faster processing speeds and reaction times."



Film Canon


In the final sequence of the Matrix Reloaded, we see the Architect casting scorn on the idea that he might renege on the deal made with the Zion humans




Oracle : I have your word?


Architect : What do you think I am, human?



This ties in very nicely with the Animatrix canon. The machines accepted the instrument of surrender and have been trying ever since to keep the humans in a state of quiescence rather than attempting (as they could very easily) to kill them





Comments

Popular posts from this blog

Why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize Missy right away?

So after it was established that Missy is actually both the Master, and the "woman in the shop" who gave Clara the TARDIS number... ...why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize her right away? I remember the Tenth Doctor in The Sound of Drums stating that Timelords had a way of recognizing other Timelords no matter if they had regenerated. And Clara should have recognized her as well... I'm hoping for a better explanation than "Moffat screwed up", and that I actually missed something after two watchthroughs of the episode. Answer There seems to be a lot of in-canon uncertainty as to the extent to which Time Lords can recognise one another which far pre-dates Moffat's tenure. From the Time Lords page on Wikipedia : Whether or not Time Lords can recognise each other across regenerations is not made entirely clear: In The War Games, the War Chief recognises the Second Doctor despite his regeneration and it is implied that the Doctor knows him when they fir

the lord of the rings - Why is Gimli allowed to travel to Valinor?

Gimli was allowed to go to Valinor despite not being a ring bearer. Is this explained in detail or just with the one line "for his love for Galadriel"? Answer There's not much detail about this aside from what's said in Appendix A to Return of the King: We have heard tell that Legolas took Gimli Glóin's son with him because of their great friendship, greater than any that has been between Elf and Dwarf. If this is true, then it is strange indeed: that a Dwarf should be willing to leave Middle-earth for any love, or that the Eldar should receive him, or that the Lords of the West should permit it. But it is said that Gimli went also out of desire to see again the beauty of Galadriel; and it may be that she, being mighty among the Eldar, obtained this grace for him. More cannot be said of this matter. And Appendix B: Then Legolas built a grey ship in Ithilien, and sailed down Anduin and so over Sea; and with him, it is said, went Gimli the Dwarf . And when that sh

Did the gatekeeper and the keymaster get intimate in Ghostbusters?

According to TVTropes ( usual warning, don't follow the link or you'll waste half your life in a twisty maze of content ): In Ghostbusters, it's strongly implied that Dana Barret, while possessed by Zuul the Gatekeeper, had sex with Louis Tully, who was possessed by Vinz Clortho the Keymaster (key, gate, get it?), in order to free Big Bad Gozer. In fact, a deleted scene from the movie has Venkman explicitly asking Dana if she and Louis "did it". I turned the quote into a spoiler since it contains really poor-taste joke, but the gist of it is that it's implied that as part of freeing Gozer , the two characters possessed by the Keymaster and the Gatekeeper had sex. Is there any canon confirmation or denial of this theory (canon meaning something from creators' interviews, DVD commentary, script, delete scenes etc...)? Answer The Richard Mueller novelisation and both versions of the script strongly suggest that they didn't have sex (or at the very l

What is the etymology of Doctor Who?

I recently decided to watch Doctor Who, and started viewing the 2005 version. I have the first two episodes from the first season, and I can't help but wonder what is the etymology of the name "Doctor Who"? And why does the protagonist call himself "the Doctor" (or is it "the doctor")? Answer In the very first episode of Doctor Who (way back in 1963), the Doctor has a granddaughter going by the name "Susan Foreman", and the junkyard where the TARDIS is has the sign "I.M. Foreman". Barbara, who becomes one of the Doctor's companions, calls him "Doctor Foreman" (probably assuming that is his name given his relationship to Susan), and Ian (another early companion) does the same in the second episode, to which the Doctor says: Eh? Doctor who? What's he talking about? "Foreman" is most likely selected as a convenient surname for Susan to use because it happened to be on display near where the TARDIS landed.