Skip to main content

harry potter - Did Moody seriously think his defences would keep Snape out of Grimmauld Place?


When the Order of the Phoenix abandoned Grimmauld Place after Snape's supposed betrayal Mad-Eye Moody set up some defences in the hallway. This was to protect Grimmauld Place from Snape and the Death Eaters.



“We can’t expect [the Fidelius Charm] to hold much longer.”
“But surely Snape will have told the Death Eaters the address by now?” asked Harry.
“Well, Mad-Eye set up a couple of curses against Snape in case he turns up there again. We hope they’ll be strong enough both to keep him out and to bind his tongue if he tries to talk about the place, but we can’t be sure. It would have been insane to keep using the place as headquarters now that its protection has become so shaky.”

(Deathly Hallows, Chapter 6, The Ghoul in Pyjamas).



Basically, the curses are two-fold.



  • A Tongue-Tying Curse. This was presumably to try and stop Snape breaking the Fidelius Curse.

  • A dust-like figure of Dumbledore. This part involved hearing Moody's voice (saying, "Severus Snape?") followed by a deathly dust-shadow projection of Dumbledore. This apparition vanished when one said the word killed. (There's been some confusion on this point so I'm including the following quote to clarify:)

    “No!” Harry shouted, and though he had raised his wand no spell occurred to him. “No! It wasn’t us! We didn’t kill you-”
    On the word kill, the figure exploded in a great cloud of dust...
    (Deathly Hallows, Chapter 9, A Place to Hide).






In what way do these charms actually protect Grimmauld Place? Was their intent to stop Snape from entering in the first place? Or just to stop him re-entering if he wanted to come back?


The Tongue-Tying Curse clearly does not protect the Fidelius Charm in any meaningful way. It would only silence Snape once he had already come back to Grimmauld Place, having already revealed the location to anyone he wanted. He could've entered accompanied by Voldemort and 40 Death Eaters and no-one could've stopped him.


The second element is even weaker. Was Moody's best hope really to rely on remorse?!? He believes that Snape is a heinous traitor and a cold-blooded killer. If he had it in his heart to kill Dumbledore in the first place why would he be remotely troubled by the dusty replica? As Harry wonders:



Had it worked, Harry wondered, or had Snape already blasted the horror-figure aside as casually as he had killed the real Dumbledore?
(Deathly Hallows, Chapter 9, A Place to Hide).




Collectively, these defences just seem really poor and ineffective for an ex-Auror of Moody's talent and ability. Clearly they weren't effective in keeping Snape out since he re-entered the house that summer. Which means that either the defences weren't intended to keep Snape out or that they just weren't very good.


Did Moody think that his defences would be effective in keeping Snape out of Grimmauld Place? What was the point of them?



Answer



No


First, it’s important to note that Moody was not sure that his defenses would be proof against Snape. In the very quote given in the question:



We hope they’ll be strong enough both to keep him out and to bind his tongue if he tries to talk about the place, but we can’t be sure. It would have been insane to keep using the place as headquarters now that its protection has become so shaky.”


Harry Potter and the Deathly Hallows



They knew that there was no guarantee that the spells would prevent Snape from either talking or entering. They had to do their best (obviously), so as to retain the house as an emergency resource and prevent Snape from taking advantage of it and anything it contained, but neither Moody nor the rest of the order was certain that they could keep the place safe. And indeed, Snape was able to defeat the protections, though he may have been aided by information he received from Mundungus.



That said, the protection is likely stronger than the question assumes (and certainly not without purpose).



  • There was almost certainly nothing that the Order could do had Snape chosen to reveal the location of Grimmauld Place before returning there himself. They could only prepare for the situation in which Snape personally went to Grimmauld Place before revealing the location. For that particular situation, the Tongue-Tying Curse (and possibly others) would presumably prevent him from revealing the information thereafter.

  • There’s no reason to believe that the dust figure of Dumbledore is merely meant to frighten Snape, or to play upon his feelings of guilt or remorse. Sure, Harry speculated that it was “just something to scare Snape,” and that Snape could have “blasted the horror-figure aside as casually as he had killed the real Dumbledore,” but we have no reason to think he understands what the spell really is. On the contrary, that, say Lupin, takes the time to dispel it suggests that it is probably a real threat.


  • There’s no reason to think that the figure vanishes when you say the word “killed.” Again, Lupin took the trouble of saying that he had not killed Dumbledore. At the very least, I suspect the whole statement is necessary:



    The intruder took a step forward, and Moody’s voice asked, “Severus Snape?” Then the dust figure rose from the end of the hall and rushed him, raising its dead hand.


    “It was not I who killed you, Albus,” said a quiet voice.


    Harry Potter and the Deathly Hallows




    It is of course entirely possible that dispelling the dust figure requires both the statement of not having killed Dumbledore, and not actually having killed Dumbledore.




  • We don’t know for sure that the Tongue-Tying curse and the dust figure are the only protections on the house. There may have been others that were not noticed because Harry and company simply were not Snape.




Comments

Popular posts from this blog

Why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize Missy right away?

So after it was established that Missy is actually both the Master, and the "woman in the shop" who gave Clara the TARDIS number... ...why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize her right away? I remember the Tenth Doctor in The Sound of Drums stating that Timelords had a way of recognizing other Timelords no matter if they had regenerated. And Clara should have recognized her as well... I'm hoping for a better explanation than "Moffat screwed up", and that I actually missed something after two watchthroughs of the episode. Answer There seems to be a lot of in-canon uncertainty as to the extent to which Time Lords can recognise one another which far pre-dates Moffat's tenure. From the Time Lords page on Wikipedia : Whether or not Time Lords can recognise each other across regenerations is not made entirely clear: In The War Games, the War Chief recognises the Second Doctor despite his regeneration and it is implied that the Doctor knows him when they fir

the lord of the rings - Why is Gimli allowed to travel to Valinor?

Gimli was allowed to go to Valinor despite not being a ring bearer. Is this explained in detail or just with the one line "for his love for Galadriel"? Answer There's not much detail about this aside from what's said in Appendix A to Return of the King: We have heard tell that Legolas took Gimli Glóin's son with him because of their great friendship, greater than any that has been between Elf and Dwarf. If this is true, then it is strange indeed: that a Dwarf should be willing to leave Middle-earth for any love, or that the Eldar should receive him, or that the Lords of the West should permit it. But it is said that Gimli went also out of desire to see again the beauty of Galadriel; and it may be that she, being mighty among the Eldar, obtained this grace for him. More cannot be said of this matter. And Appendix B: Then Legolas built a grey ship in Ithilien, and sailed down Anduin and so over Sea; and with him, it is said, went Gimli the Dwarf . And when that sh

Did the gatekeeper and the keymaster get intimate in Ghostbusters?

According to TVTropes ( usual warning, don't follow the link or you'll waste half your life in a twisty maze of content ): In Ghostbusters, it's strongly implied that Dana Barret, while possessed by Zuul the Gatekeeper, had sex with Louis Tully, who was possessed by Vinz Clortho the Keymaster (key, gate, get it?), in order to free Big Bad Gozer. In fact, a deleted scene from the movie has Venkman explicitly asking Dana if she and Louis "did it". I turned the quote into a spoiler since it contains really poor-taste joke, but the gist of it is that it's implied that as part of freeing Gozer , the two characters possessed by the Keymaster and the Gatekeeper had sex. Is there any canon confirmation or denial of this theory (canon meaning something from creators' interviews, DVD commentary, script, delete scenes etc...)? Answer The Richard Mueller novelisation and both versions of the script strongly suggest that they didn't have sex (or at the very l

What is the etymology of Doctor Who?

I recently decided to watch Doctor Who, and started viewing the 2005 version. I have the first two episodes from the first season, and I can't help but wonder what is the etymology of the name "Doctor Who"? And why does the protagonist call himself "the Doctor" (or is it "the doctor")? Answer In the very first episode of Doctor Who (way back in 1963), the Doctor has a granddaughter going by the name "Susan Foreman", and the junkyard where the TARDIS is has the sign "I.M. Foreman". Barbara, who becomes one of the Doctor's companions, calls him "Doctor Foreman" (probably assuming that is his name given his relationship to Susan), and Ian (another early companion) does the same in the second episode, to which the Doctor says: Eh? Doctor who? What's he talking about? "Foreman" is most likely selected as a convenient surname for Susan to use because it happened to be on display near where the TARDIS landed.