Skip to main content

star wars - Why were the ways of the Force considered a "religion" in the Galaxy Far Far Away during ANH by non-Force-users?


For some reason, the ways of the Force are nearly universally considered a religion in the Galaxy Far Far Away during year 0 BBY by "laymen" (e.g. non-Jedi-nor-Sith):



Han Solo: Hokey religions and ancient weapons are no match for a good blaster at your side, kid.






Motti: Your sad devotion to that ancient religion has not helped you conjure up the stolen data tapes or given you clairvoyance enough to find the Rebels' hidden fort- [grasps his throat as if he is being choked]





Tarkin: The Jedi are extinct. Their fire has gone out of the universe. You, my friend, are all that's left of their religion.



Why exactly was it considered "religion"? (by people who were not Jedi or Sith who had no idea about the spiritual components of it).


There was no deity nor worship which usually define religion. As a matter of fact, aside from the Jedi and the Sith internal beliefs themselves, there was no spiritual angle at all (this is an important point. Yoda may have known about spirituality and life after death thing. But Han Solo couldn't have known, neither did Motti).


The way I see it, to the rest of the galaxy, the ways of the Force were more akin to magic as practiced by Uri Geller or Houdini - a somewhat supernatural-seeming set of tricks with no spiritual component. Nobody ever referred to such people/movements as "religions" in real life.




Answer



The entire galaxy seems to have suffered an immense bout of amnesia about the Jedi - people who could have and should have known Jedi act as if they have no knowledge of them at all.


All that most people know of them, especially people who never saw or interacted of them before the Empire rose, is what they've heard.


The Jedi were an exclusive order, known for being wise. They could preform miracles, and professed a faith and belief in something that the average person could not see or feel.


They promised a form of everlasting life after death (becoming 'one with the Force'), lived in a massive Temple, and the meaning and reasons for much that they did was non-obvious to most people.


In short, the Jedi were all followers of the same religion. The Sith were followers of a different version of this religion. The only difference between their religion and the religions we have today are that the Jedi and Sith can use their belief to preform repeatable, measurable actions.


Give it a generation for the rest of what they said and did to fade into the mists of time (you can bet the Emperor didn't let much in the way of official records remain) and 'religion' becomes a very apt description of them.


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

Why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize Missy right away?

So after it was established that Missy is actually both the Master, and the "woman in the shop" who gave Clara the TARDIS number... ...why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize her right away? I remember the Tenth Doctor in The Sound of Drums stating that Timelords had a way of recognizing other Timelords no matter if they had regenerated. And Clara should have recognized her as well... I'm hoping for a better explanation than "Moffat screwed up", and that I actually missed something after two watchthroughs of the episode. Answer There seems to be a lot of in-canon uncertainty as to the extent to which Time Lords can recognise one another which far pre-dates Moffat's tenure. From the Time Lords page on Wikipedia : Whether or not Time Lords can recognise each other across regenerations is not made entirely clear: In The War Games, the War Chief recognises the Second Doctor despite his regeneration and it is implied that the Doctor knows him when they fir

the lord of the rings - Why is Gimli allowed to travel to Valinor?

Gimli was allowed to go to Valinor despite not being a ring bearer. Is this explained in detail or just with the one line "for his love for Galadriel"? Answer There's not much detail about this aside from what's said in Appendix A to Return of the King: We have heard tell that Legolas took Gimli Glóin's son with him because of their great friendship, greater than any that has been between Elf and Dwarf. If this is true, then it is strange indeed: that a Dwarf should be willing to leave Middle-earth for any love, or that the Eldar should receive him, or that the Lords of the West should permit it. But it is said that Gimli went also out of desire to see again the beauty of Galadriel; and it may be that she, being mighty among the Eldar, obtained this grace for him. More cannot be said of this matter. And Appendix B: Then Legolas built a grey ship in Ithilien, and sailed down Anduin and so over Sea; and with him, it is said, went Gimli the Dwarf . And when that sh

Did the gatekeeper and the keymaster get intimate in Ghostbusters?

According to TVTropes ( usual warning, don't follow the link or you'll waste half your life in a twisty maze of content ): In Ghostbusters, it's strongly implied that Dana Barret, while possessed by Zuul the Gatekeeper, had sex with Louis Tully, who was possessed by Vinz Clortho the Keymaster (key, gate, get it?), in order to free Big Bad Gozer. In fact, a deleted scene from the movie has Venkman explicitly asking Dana if she and Louis "did it". I turned the quote into a spoiler since it contains really poor-taste joke, but the gist of it is that it's implied that as part of freeing Gozer , the two characters possessed by the Keymaster and the Gatekeeper had sex. Is there any canon confirmation or denial of this theory (canon meaning something from creators' interviews, DVD commentary, script, delete scenes etc...)? Answer The Richard Mueller novelisation and both versions of the script strongly suggest that they didn't have sex (or at the very l

What is the etymology of Doctor Who?

I recently decided to watch Doctor Who, and started viewing the 2005 version. I have the first two episodes from the first season, and I can't help but wonder what is the etymology of the name "Doctor Who"? And why does the protagonist call himself "the Doctor" (or is it "the doctor")? Answer In the very first episode of Doctor Who (way back in 1963), the Doctor has a granddaughter going by the name "Susan Foreman", and the junkyard where the TARDIS is has the sign "I.M. Foreman". Barbara, who becomes one of the Doctor's companions, calls him "Doctor Foreman" (probably assuming that is his name given his relationship to Susan), and Ian (another early companion) does the same in the second episode, to which the Doctor says: Eh? Doctor who? What's he talking about? "Foreman" is most likely selected as a convenient surname for Susan to use because it happened to be on display near where the TARDIS landed.