Skip to main content

star wars - How much close control over physical objects is possible with the Force?


The Jedi can control objects with the mystical power called the Force without touching them.


In the movies you can see, that the Jedi or Sith are moving objects really fast and really well controlled from one place to another.


Now I'm wondering, why did Jedi or a Sith never use the Force to fight with a lightsaber, or with more lightsabers, or even to control other weapons like a laser gun without touching them? I imagine a Jedi or a Sith with 4 lightsabers around, all of them are floating in the air, controlled by him and the Force. Would this even be possible? What is the force really able to do?


Sean Duggan:




Or, as mentioned in *Kid Dynamo", why don't they just yank the supports out in a building and let that crush the people inside (or at least force them to devote a lot of effort to keep from dying)? Admittedly, Dooku did use something like that when he forced Yoda to divert his attention to the pillar.




Answer



A great deal


It’s possible to control the trajectory of objects very carefully through the Force, as seen, for example, when younglings construct lightsabers:


enter image description here


Because of this, it is absolutely possible to manipulate a lightsaber using the Force. For example, Yoda makes his lightsaber float in the air and move around (he also turns it on without touching it).


enter image description here It is even (likely) possible to use such a remote-controlled lightsaber in combat. This may have been demonstrated by Darth Vader in Star Wars #2 . He grabs a poorly-trained Luke’s lightsaber from his hands using the Force:


enter image description here



He then proceeds to use telekinesis to control it, making it float in the air in front of him:


enter image description here


And apparently to slash at someone’s face remotely:


enter image description here


It’s admittedly hard to tell whether he’s controlling the saber remotely, or simply throwing and retrieving it with great accuracy, but it certainly looks like the former.


As to why people don’t usually use this in combat, it’s simply that using the Force to control a blade takes more effort than using one’s hands. It’s like asking whether someone could attach a lightsaber to a polearm for greater reach: they could, but it would make the weapon harder to use. Especially given that using multiple lightsabers doesn’t seem to confer an unmitigated advantage in lightsaber-on-lightsaber combat (see: General Grievous), this would be an unnecessary exertion in combat with another Force-user. If, on the other hand, one is fighting a bunch of ordinary people and a very untrained Jedi, as Vader is, this might be a nice way of making ranged attacks.


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

Why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize Missy right away?

So after it was established that Missy is actually both the Master, and the "woman in the shop" who gave Clara the TARDIS number... ...why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize her right away? I remember the Tenth Doctor in The Sound of Drums stating that Timelords had a way of recognizing other Timelords no matter if they had regenerated. And Clara should have recognized her as well... I'm hoping for a better explanation than "Moffat screwed up", and that I actually missed something after two watchthroughs of the episode. Answer There seems to be a lot of in-canon uncertainty as to the extent to which Time Lords can recognise one another which far pre-dates Moffat's tenure. From the Time Lords page on Wikipedia : Whether or not Time Lords can recognise each other across regenerations is not made entirely clear: In The War Games, the War Chief recognises the Second Doctor despite his regeneration and it is implied that the Doctor knows him when they fir

the lord of the rings - Why is Gimli allowed to travel to Valinor?

Gimli was allowed to go to Valinor despite not being a ring bearer. Is this explained in detail or just with the one line "for his love for Galadriel"? Answer There's not much detail about this aside from what's said in Appendix A to Return of the King: We have heard tell that Legolas took Gimli Glóin's son with him because of their great friendship, greater than any that has been between Elf and Dwarf. If this is true, then it is strange indeed: that a Dwarf should be willing to leave Middle-earth for any love, or that the Eldar should receive him, or that the Lords of the West should permit it. But it is said that Gimli went also out of desire to see again the beauty of Galadriel; and it may be that she, being mighty among the Eldar, obtained this grace for him. More cannot be said of this matter. And Appendix B: Then Legolas built a grey ship in Ithilien, and sailed down Anduin and so over Sea; and with him, it is said, went Gimli the Dwarf . And when that sh

Did the gatekeeper and the keymaster get intimate in Ghostbusters?

According to TVTropes ( usual warning, don't follow the link or you'll waste half your life in a twisty maze of content ): In Ghostbusters, it's strongly implied that Dana Barret, while possessed by Zuul the Gatekeeper, had sex with Louis Tully, who was possessed by Vinz Clortho the Keymaster (key, gate, get it?), in order to free Big Bad Gozer. In fact, a deleted scene from the movie has Venkman explicitly asking Dana if she and Louis "did it". I turned the quote into a spoiler since it contains really poor-taste joke, but the gist of it is that it's implied that as part of freeing Gozer , the two characters possessed by the Keymaster and the Gatekeeper had sex. Is there any canon confirmation or denial of this theory (canon meaning something from creators' interviews, DVD commentary, script, delete scenes etc...)? Answer The Richard Mueller novelisation and both versions of the script strongly suggest that they didn't have sex (or at the very l

What is the etymology of Doctor Who?

I recently decided to watch Doctor Who, and started viewing the 2005 version. I have the first two episodes from the first season, and I can't help but wonder what is the etymology of the name "Doctor Who"? And why does the protagonist call himself "the Doctor" (or is it "the doctor")? Answer In the very first episode of Doctor Who (way back in 1963), the Doctor has a granddaughter going by the name "Susan Foreman", and the junkyard where the TARDIS is has the sign "I.M. Foreman". Barbara, who becomes one of the Doctor's companions, calls him "Doctor Foreman" (probably assuming that is his name given his relationship to Susan), and Ian (another early companion) does the same in the second episode, to which the Doctor says: Eh? Doctor who? What's he talking about? "Foreman" is most likely selected as a convenient surname for Susan to use because it happened to be on display near where the TARDIS landed.