We know that both Frodo and Bilbo turned 100% fully invisible when wearing The One Ring, their clothes included (as seen in Bilbo's disappearing trick at his farewell party, and Frodo's disappearance in the tavern).
Is there any indication in Tolkien of whether Gollum - who was related to hobbits - had the same effect (e.g. his clothes would become invisible when wearing his Precious)?
Please note that this only applies to times/situations when he wore clothes (possibly while he was still Smeagol), since it's quite possible that after multitude of years of feral living as Gollum he had no clothes.
Answer
Regardless of the debate on whether Smeagol was a hobbit or merely related to hobbits - I'm not sure why you would think this is species-limited.
Isildur wears the ring and becomes invisible when escaping the ambush by orcs on his journey north. It then slips off when he's in the water, and the orcs pepper him with arrows - and he was fully clothed.
The only person in the films seen to wear the ring and not become invisible is Sauron - the books aren't as explicit about that, but again they do not mention anyone having to be naked to be invisible while wearing the ring. As noted, Tom Bombadil also put on the ring and was not made invisible - while we do not find out who or what Tom is, it is fairly obvious that he is not a mortal like Isildur or the hobbits.
It could be that Sauron, as the maker of the ring, can also decide on his visibility as he might have more control on the ring's power.
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