Skip to main content

Inhumans vs. Mutants in the Marvel Universe


What's the difference between those two? Aren't Inhumans supposed to be an evolution of the human race "forced" by the Kree? Which is almost the same as Mutants, the natural evolution of the human race...


What exactly am I missing?



Answer



They are, indeed, very similar. The main difference is very technical, based on the "origin" of their non-human genetics, and how those changes are activated.


The X-Factor


Mutants are humans that possess a genetic variation known as the X-Gene or X-Factor, which (at least in the main continuity) was introduced into the human population by the Celestials. Biologically, they are classified as the sub-species Homo sapiens superior, as opposed to normal humans, Homo sapiens sapiens.



Mutant powers activate naturally, either at birth, or more often, at puberty. This is because the X-Gene appears on the 23rd chromosome, the sex chromosome, which mostly affects the production of hormones related to sexuality and puberty.


Terrigenesis


The Inhumans are humans that descend from a very primitive group of Homo sapiens sapiens that was genetically manipulated by the Kree to encode the potential for enhanced mutations into their genetic code. Biologically, they are classified as Homo sapiens inhumanus.


Inhuman powers would normally remain dormant for their entire lives. They must be exposed to the Terrigen Mists, a process called Terrigenesis, in order for those powers to activate. (In the MCU, for example, there are clear changes in DNA between pre- and post- Terrigenesis Inhumans.)


Related?


Despite their differences, X-Gene mutants and Terrigenesis mutants are extremely similar. The process by which their powers manifest once triggered is largely the same: the mutation produces new proteins, which in turn trigger changes to other bodily systems, which result in powers.


In particular, during the Son of M storyline, most mutants were de-powered: their X-Gene activity was suppressed and their mutant powers went away. However, exposing a former mutant to Terrigenesis restored their powers, which indicates an extremely close link, genetically, between the two subspecies.


Cross-Breeding


Since all three (human, Inhuman, and mutant) are still the same species, they can freely breed with each other and produce viable, fertile offspring.


As far as their genetic mutation goes, the X-Gene appears to work like any other human gene, while the Inhuman genetic changes appear to be highly dominant, based on the known pairings:




  • An X-Mutant and Human produce either X-mutants or humans, based on inheritance of the X-Gene. See, for example, Wolverine's 6 children, 2 of which were mutants.

  • An X-Human and Inhuman appears to produced an Inhuman; The only example I know of is Quicksilver and Crystal's daughter, Luna, who appeared human until exposed to Terrigen Mists, so it's not clear if such a pairing could produce an X-Mutant or not.

  • An Inhuman and Human also appears to produce an Inhuman; many of the Inhumans have human parents. (This idea appears in the MCU as well: Quake (Daisy Johnson) has been rewritten as an Inhuman, who's power comes from her mother; her father is still Calvin Zabo, a normal human)


The last bullet is particularly important in the Inhumans story line, because there are a whole lot of human/Inhuman hybrids; there are entire groups (e.g. the "Lost Tribes") of Inhumans that intermingled with human populations over the centuries, and their offspring are capable of being activated by Terrigenesis. These are commonly called the "new Inhumans", for example see this list: http://marvel.wikia.com/List_of_New_Inhumans


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

languages - Do we ever see written English in the Star Wars films?

In Empire Strikes Back , we see a transcription of what R2's beeps and bloops mean, but it's not English (sorry for the low quality, it's from the 2004 DVDs): I'd assume it's what Basic looks like when written, but is there some point in the the Star Wars films we see written English instead? (This sort of spun off from a discussion in How do people understand astromech droids? .) Answer At one point there was English but it has been phased out in subsequent versions of the films. Chris Gould at DVD Active did a comparison of all versions of each of the Star Wars films, and in his comparison of Episode 4 , there are a couple of screenshots showing how the power gauge for the Death Star tractor beam was changed. I imagine there are probably more to be found in his other comparisons but I haven't got around to reading those yet.

Was the "pure soul" of Harry's what had really hurt Voldemort?

In the Order of the Phoenix, Voldemort possesses Harry, and it hurts. Greatly. I think that Dumbledore explained that it was because Voldemort's rotten soul was incapable of assimilating Harry's pure soul, that Voldemort didn't understand the love and friendship etc that Harry has in his heart. But, I think it was a lie. Remember that in Deathly Hallows, while looking for information regarding Horcruxes, it is discovered that it is in fact possible to merge a soul fragment back, but that the process was extremely painful. Now then, if Voldemort tried to possess Harry, and Harry had a fragment of Voldemort's soul, I think that it could have been the true cause of Voldemort's pain: the fact of having his soul so close of another fragment. I think that Dumbledore knew that fact, but had to lie to Harry because it was inappropriate to let him know that he had one of Voldemort's soul fragments at the moment. Is that right? Or was it truly the pure soul of Harry's...

star wars - What "exactly" happens when someone turns to the Dark Side?

When I saw the original Star Wars saga as a kid, the concept of the Dark Side imprinted in me was quite simple. You did a bad thing, so you're a bad person so you go to the Dark Side and keep doing bad things. Now, obviously this doesn't hold true in reality. In my mind it is perfectly reasonable for Luke to kill the Emperor and Vader and then just flee the Death Star and rejoin the Alliance. After all they are at war, those are enemy officers that have captured him and are taunting him by threatening with death of all loved ones and the whole operation was intended to kill the Emperor anyway. The same would hold true for Anakin. He could have killed Mace Windu to save the Chancellor and Padme but that doesn't mean he's going to then go mad and kill all Jedis including children. It doesn't add up from a merely psychological point of view. He had a set of objectives and that made him want to keep the Chancellor alive (quite valid by the way, Mace Windu is quite clums...

star trek - Warning regarding forward saucer section in Nemesis?

In Star Trek: Nemesis , just before the Enterprise rams into the Scimitar, Picard sends a text message from his captain's chair arm pad to Troi — who is manning the helm in lieu of the crewman who was just blown out through what was once the view screen — indicating that she should put full impulse on standby. (Literally, if you watch the scene closely, Troi's console prefaces the order with "TXT MSG" !) My question is: Did Picard also somehow warn crew members in the forward saucer section about what was about to happen? The ramming of the Scimitar was a heat of the moment decision. Considering that he also resorted to calling the auto-destruct sequence shortly after (which ended up being offline), he probably was of the mindset that any losses would be acceptable in order to hault Shinzon's march to Earth. Still, I'm curious. Answer The original script indicates that he called for the crew to " brace for impact ". Whether that call (or the comma...