Skip to main content

game of thrones - Under which kingdom are the Iron Islands?


According to the Game of Thrones Wiki, there seem to be 7 kingdoms but 8 governors. It seems to me that this is the correspondence:



  1. Kingdom of the North -- The Lord Paramount of the North and Warden of the North


? -- The Lord of the Iron Islands





  1. Kingdom of the Mountain and the Vale -- The Lord Paramount of the Vale and Warden of the East




  2. Kingdom of the Isles and Rivers -- The Lord Paramount of the Riverlands




  3. Kingdom of the Rock -- The Lord Paramount of the Westerlands and Warden of the West




  4. Kingdom of the Stormlands -- The Lord Paramount of the Stormlands





  5. Kingdom of the Reach -- The Lord Paramount of the Reach and Warden of the South




  6. Principality of Dorne -- The Prince of Dorne






My understanding based on the rest of the webpage, Why do they still refer to the "Seven Kingdoms" in Game of Thrones? and What are the different provinces mentioned in a Game of Thrones? is that Kingdom #3 was split into 2 regions and hence there are 8 regions of Westeros that are subject to the rule of the Iron Throne.



Is that right?



Answer



The Iron Islands were a part of the Kingdom of Isles and Rivers. Before the Targeryen invasion, House Hoare ruled over the Iron Islands and the Riverlands.


House Hoare was the Royal House of the Iron Islands. Harwyn Hoare conquered the Riverlands and House Hoare controlled the Riverlands until Harwyn's grandson Black Harren was killed during the Targeryen Invasion.


Yes, you are correct that there are 8 regions due to the fact that the Kingdom of Isles and Rivers was split into two regions - The Iron Islands and The Riverlands.


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

Was the "pure soul" of Harry's what had really hurt Voldemort?

In the Order of the Phoenix, Voldemort possesses Harry, and it hurts. Greatly. I think that Dumbledore explained that it was because Voldemort's rotten soul was incapable of assimilating Harry's pure soul, that Voldemort didn't understand the love and friendship etc that Harry has in his heart. But, I think it was a lie. Remember that in Deathly Hallows, while looking for information regarding Horcruxes, it is discovered that it is in fact possible to merge a soul fragment back, but that the process was extremely painful. Now then, if Voldemort tried to possess Harry, and Harry had a fragment of Voldemort's soul, I think that it could have been the true cause of Voldemort's pain: the fact of having his soul so close of another fragment. I think that Dumbledore knew that fact, but had to lie to Harry because it was inappropriate to let him know that he had one of Voldemort's soul fragments at the moment. Is that right? Or was it truly the pure soul of Harry's...

languages - Do we ever see written English in the Star Wars films?

In Empire Strikes Back , we see a transcription of what R2's beeps and bloops mean, but it's not English (sorry for the low quality, it's from the 2004 DVDs): I'd assume it's what Basic looks like when written, but is there some point in the the Star Wars films we see written English instead? (This sort of spun off from a discussion in How do people understand astromech droids? .) Answer At one point there was English but it has been phased out in subsequent versions of the films. Chris Gould at DVD Active did a comparison of all versions of each of the Star Wars films, and in his comparison of Episode 4 , there are a couple of screenshots showing how the power gauge for the Death Star tractor beam was changed. I imagine there are probably more to be found in his other comparisons but I haven't got around to reading those yet.

star wars - What "exactly" happens when someone turns to the Dark Side?

When I saw the original Star Wars saga as a kid, the concept of the Dark Side imprinted in me was quite simple. You did a bad thing, so you're a bad person so you go to the Dark Side and keep doing bad things. Now, obviously this doesn't hold true in reality. In my mind it is perfectly reasonable for Luke to kill the Emperor and Vader and then just flee the Death Star and rejoin the Alliance. After all they are at war, those are enemy officers that have captured him and are taunting him by threatening with death of all loved ones and the whole operation was intended to kill the Emperor anyway. The same would hold true for Anakin. He could have killed Mace Windu to save the Chancellor and Padme but that doesn't mean he's going to then go mad and kill all Jedis including children. It doesn't add up from a merely psychological point of view. He had a set of objectives and that made him want to keep the Chancellor alive (quite valid by the way, Mace Windu is quite clums...

star trek - Warning regarding forward saucer section in Nemesis?

In Star Trek: Nemesis , just before the Enterprise rams into the Scimitar, Picard sends a text message from his captain's chair arm pad to Troi — who is manning the helm in lieu of the crewman who was just blown out through what was once the view screen — indicating that she should put full impulse on standby. (Literally, if you watch the scene closely, Troi's console prefaces the order with "TXT MSG" !) My question is: Did Picard also somehow warn crew members in the forward saucer section about what was about to happen? The ramming of the Scimitar was a heat of the moment decision. Considering that he also resorted to calling the auto-destruct sequence shortly after (which ended up being offline), he probably was of the mindset that any losses would be acceptable in order to hault Shinzon's march to Earth. Still, I'm curious. Answer The original script indicates that he called for the crew to " brace for impact ". Whether that call (or the comma...