Skip to main content

marvel - What happened to the planets Thanos already culled?


In Avengers: Infinity War



Thanos snaps his fingers and half the population of the universe is destroyed.



We also know that



Thanos has destroyed half the Asgardians, half of Gamora's people and half of many more civilisations already through the old fashioned method of having them shot.




So are those civilisations immune to the effect of his actions or are they impacted a second time?



Answer



TLDR



  • We don't know yet...

  • One can assume the stones know the intent of the user

  • There is a good chance that a second attack would not occur


There is no evidence yet addressing what has happened. The only effects we have seen from Thanos' actions affected the heroes we have come to love. Beyond this we don't know.



However, based on the events of the film we may have some idea of the result:



We know that Thanos simply is trying to help everyone out by reducing the strain on the universe's finite resources. That is his plan and his motivation; to keep the rest of the universe from befalling a fate similar to his home planet...



During the events of the film:



We also know that when engaging the Guardians on Knowhere Thanos was manipulating reality in real time. I do not remember who but of Drax and Mantis he turned one into blocks and the other into strips, an homage to the comics as I understand it. (I think the characters were affected in that order respectively). Whether this was done intentionally by Thanos or how the stone understood his desire is unclear, but either way the stone acted based upon his desires in the situation. He wanted those characters to not be a threat so he could "consult" with Gamora and Quill. I feel pretty safe in my assumption that Thanos was not thinking "I want there to be (this many) blocks of him exactly (this big) and (this many) strips of her (exactly this wide and long) falling to the floor. Unless he did, the stone took some artistic license in its actions, but the desire was still adhered to.



Considering your question:




Given that interaction I think it would be safe to assume that the gauntlet as a whole would act similarly. If it did exactly as Thanos desired to the letter then the only reason those societies would be affected again is if he desired it to be so. Despite his hardliner actions Thanos is still acting... rationally... so I would not see those civilizations affected again. If the gauntlet acts without specific direction from its wielder then it would take the subconscious desires into account when acting and again, I would not see those civilizations affected.



Comments

Popular posts from this blog

harry potter - Do the Kwikspell courses work?

In Harry Potter we are introduced to Kwikspell course in The Chamber of Secrets (and never hear about it again). We see Filch taking courses, presumably by mail. The descriptions of Kwikspell make me think it is for people who are weak in magic (kind of like how Neville was supposed to be when he was younger), but had magic in them nonetheless. However, Ron's comments later in the chapter make it sound like it is mainly for Squibs to learn magic. However, it is strongly implied through out all the books that Squibs are essentially Muggles, and will never be able to do magic. How then is a Kwikspell course supposed to work? Do we have any information to know if it works at all? Is it a scam? An answer from any level of canon is welcome. Answer Kwikspell courses are (probably) useful to some wizards, but not to squibs. The Kwikspell course literature comes with two testimonials. Madam Z. Nettles of Topsham writes: ‘I had no memory for incantations and my potions were a family joke...

futurama - How much time is lost in 'Time Keeps on Slippin''

In time Keeps on Slippin' , Farnsworth creates a basketball team which he matures by abusing Chronitons. This leads to time skipping forward by random, but ever increasing amounts. How much time was skipped in this way? Answer Unfortunately, I don't think a good estimate can be made for this, for two reasons: Many of the time skips move forward by an indeterminate amount of time. At one point, the Professor mentions localized regions of space skipping forward much more than others. We then see two young boys on the street below complaining about having to pay social security, only to suddenly become senior citizens and start complaining about wanting their money. Thus, each individual could have experienced a different amount of time skippage.

languages - Do we ever see written English in the Star Wars films?

In Empire Strikes Back , we see a transcription of what R2's beeps and bloops mean, but it's not English (sorry for the low quality, it's from the 2004 DVDs): I'd assume it's what Basic looks like when written, but is there some point in the the Star Wars films we see written English instead? (This sort of spun off from a discussion in How do people understand astromech droids? .) Answer At one point there was English but it has been phased out in subsequent versions of the films. Chris Gould at DVD Active did a comparison of all versions of each of the Star Wars films, and in his comparison of Episode 4 , there are a couple of screenshots showing how the power gauge for the Death Star tractor beam was changed. I imagine there are probably more to be found in his other comparisons but I haven't got around to reading those yet.

Was the "pure soul" of Harry's what had really hurt Voldemort?

In the Order of the Phoenix, Voldemort possesses Harry, and it hurts. Greatly. I think that Dumbledore explained that it was because Voldemort's rotten soul was incapable of assimilating Harry's pure soul, that Voldemort didn't understand the love and friendship etc that Harry has in his heart. But, I think it was a lie. Remember that in Deathly Hallows, while looking for information regarding Horcruxes, it is discovered that it is in fact possible to merge a soul fragment back, but that the process was extremely painful. Now then, if Voldemort tried to possess Harry, and Harry had a fragment of Voldemort's soul, I think that it could have been the true cause of Voldemort's pain: the fact of having his soul so close of another fragment. I think that Dumbledore knew that fact, but had to lie to Harry because it was inappropriate to let him know that he had one of Voldemort's soul fragments at the moment. Is that right? Or was it truly the pure soul of Harry's...