Skip to main content

the lord of the rings - What is Elrond's position/status, as compared to Galadriel's?


In the Lord of the Rings books, Galadriel of Lorien is even more exalted than in the movies. She is essentially a queen, and the deference shown to her far exceeds that shown to Elrond of Rivendell. Yet in the films, we see her trying to persuade Elrond to intervene in the battle of Helm's Deep by sending Elf troops to reinforce Theoden's forces. Eventually, Elrond relents, and orders the Elves into battle. But the troops in question are Galadriel's, not Elrond's - they are led by Haldir, one of Galadriel's guards; the trip from Rivendell to Helm's Deep (500 miles as the crow flies) is about 2 times longer than the trip from Lorien to Helm's Deep (250 miles as the crow flies), far too long for the reinforcements to arrive in time. But then Haldir greets Theoden of Rohan by saying he has come bearing a message from Elrond - not Galadriel.




I bring word from Lord Elrond of Rivendell. An Alliance once existed between Elves and Men. Long ago we fought and died together. We come to honor that allegiance.



This seems odd for a few reasons. The troops are Galadriel's, not Elrond's, and they come from Lorien, not Rivendell. She clearly wanted to send them to Helm's Deep - she was cajoling, prodding, and guilt-tripping him into doing just that. She is also a queen, and could presumably order them into battle regardless of what Elrond says.


So why does she have to talk Elrond into letting her send her own troops into battle, especially when he is too far away to contribute manpower (elfpower) or materiel to the battle of Helm's Deep? Why not say, "I'm not going to sit here doing nothing while Saruman runs roughshod over Rohan; you can support me or not, Elrond, but if you aren't willing to help, you can at least get the hell out of the way"? Why does her aide Haldir "bring word from Elrond" when the troops - and the impetus for sending them - came from Galadriel, and Elrond resisted sending them out for as long as he could? And again, what is Elrond's official position/status/rank, and why would a queen need his permission to deploy her own troops?



Answer



As has been pointed out, no Elves fight at the battle of Helm's Deep in the book1. However, there is a way of justifying this, and it comes down to the succession of the High Kingship of the Noldor2, 3.


The most correct answer is that Elrond had been given special authority by the last High King, Gil-galad, following Sauron's expulsion from Eriador:



At this time the first Council was held, and it was there determined that an Elvish stronghold in the east of Eriador should be maintained at Imladris rather than in Eregion. At that time also Gil-galad gave Vilya, the Blue Ring, to Elrond, and appointed him to be his vice-regent in Eriador


Unfinished Tales Part 2: "The Second Age" Chapter IV: "The History of Galadriel and Celeborn"




Of course, Lothlórien isn't actually in Eriador, so strictly speaking Elrond's authority shouldn't apply to Galadriel. However, this regency does make Elrond the closest thing we know of to Gil-galad's heir.


Another point to consider is that, following Gil-galad's death, Elrond has a stronger claim on the High Kingship than Galadriel.


The High King


The High King of the Noldor is the political leader of the Elves in Middle-earth4. Historically, the Kingship begins with Finwë, the first King of the Noldor. Finwë had three sons:



After Finwë's death, the kingship was claimed by Fëanor:



Fëanor appeared in [Tirion] and called on all to come to the high court of the King upon the summit of Túna. [...] He claimed now the kingship of all the Noldor, since Finwë was dead, and he scorned the decrees of the Valar.


The Silmarillion III Quenta Silmarillion Chapter 9: "Of the Flight of the Noldor"




After Fëanor's death, the Kingship technically passed to his eldest son Maedhros, but Maedhros gave up his claim, and the claim of his entire family, after he was rescued from Thangorodrim by Fingon, and it passed to Fingolfin:



Maedhros begged forgiveness for the desertion in Araman; and he waived his claim to kingship over all the Noldor, saying to Fingolfin: 'If there lay no grievance between us, lord, still the kingship would rightly come to you, the eldest here of the house of Finwë, and not the least wise.' But to this his brothers did not all in their hearts agree.


Therefore even as Mandos foretold the House of Fëanor were called the Dispossessed, because the over-lordship passed from it, the elder, to the house of Fingolfin, both in Elendë and in Beleriand


The Silmarillion III Quenta Silmarillion Chapter 13: "Of the Return of the Noldor"



From there, the crown went to Fingolfin's eldest son, Fingon. Fingon died childless, so the crown went to Fingolfin's second son, Turgon. Turgon had no sons, and Fingolfin had no surviving sons, so the crown passed to the heir of Fingolfin's brother (Finarfin, who stayed in Aman): his great-grandson Gil-galad5, 6. Gil-galad died in the Last Alliance, and he died with no heirs. The High Kingship died with him.


So how do Elrond and Galadriel fit into this?


Of all the Elves who remained in Middle-earth into the Third Age, Elrond and Galadriel have the strongest claims to the High Kingship:





  • Elrond's grandmother, Idril, was the only child of Turgon (the second-to-last High King).




  • Galadriel, meanwhile, was the youngest child of Finarfin, Finwë's third son.




They both have very strong claims to the throne, but they are presumably ineligible to actually take up the mantle of High King (or Queen), because of Elvish succession rules: I'm not sure off hand if Tolkien has confirmed this, but based on the evidence it seems likely that the "female line" is not considered in line for the throne, at all.


However, Elrond's claim is slightly stronger. If we assumed that succession was able to pass through the female line, his father Eärendil would have succeeded Turgon as High King7, and Elrond would have succeeded him.



Galadriel, meanwhile, is further down the chain in this hypothetical. She would come after Gil-galad, who would have been much further down the succession chain in this scenario.


So what is Elrond's rank?


Aside from being Lord of Rivendell, he's officially the vice-regent of the High King of the Noldor. He's also pretty much the de facto High King, although he never claims the title.


What about Galadriel?


She's the Lady of Lothlórien; that's all. She's not a queen, just a very noble Elf-maid. In fact, Tolkien makes it a point to note that she didn't call herself a queen8:



After the disaster in Moria [in the year 1980] and the sorrows of Lórien, which was now left without a ruler (for Amroth was drowned in the sea in the Bay of Belfalas and left no heir), Celeborn and Galadriel returned to Lórien, and were welcomed by the people. There they dwelt while the Third Age lasted, but they took no title of King or Queen; for they said that they were only guardians of this small but fair realm, the last eastward outpost of the Elves.


Unfinished Tales Part 2: "The Second Age" Chapter IV: "The History of Galadriel and Celeborn"



And specifically mentions in one of his Letters (in response to a proposed film treatment) that she was not a queen:




21 ff. 'A splendid sight. It is the home of Galadriel... an Elvenqueen.' (She is not in fact one.)


The Letters of J.R.R. Tolkien 210: To Forrest J. Ackerman (excerpt). June 1958



What she is is one of a very small number of Elves in the Third Age who lived in Aman and beheld the light of the Two Trees of Valinor. Galadriel has been around for a long time, and is one of the oldest living beings in Middle-earth. People revere her and respect her opinion because of her wisdom, not her status.


Of course, it's also worth noting that Galadriel is a woman, who traditionally get treated a little differently in the mythic histories Tolkien was trying to mirror. Although I doubt he'd like the comparison, it's notable that characters in the Arthurian mythology tend to treat Queen Guinevere with more (or, at least, different) reverence than they do King Arthur.




1 Except for Legolas, of course.


2 Warning: this post is going to have lots of names. You might find the Elvish family tree at LOTRProject.com helpful.


3 It's not important to understand who "the Noldor" are, except that they're the upper-class Elves. Although it's technically true that the High King of the Noldor doesn't have official authority over the "commoner" Elves (Sindar and Silvan Elves), in my experience that's less important than having authority over their rulers.



4 When I say "High King of the Noldor in Middle-earth", I really do mean "Middle-earth"; the Noldor who stayed in Aman were being ruled by Finarfin


5 Finarfin had three sons: Finrod, Angrod, and Aegnor. Finrod had no children, and had died by this point. Angrod was Gil-galad's grandfather. Aegnor, also childless, was also dead at this point.


6 Gil-galad's parentage is somewhat more complicated then I'm making out; I discuss Tolkien's shifting perspectives on the topic quite extensively over at What is the parentage of Gil-galad?


7 For the purposes of this thought experiment, we'll ignore the complication that Eärendil was seven years old when Turgon died.


8 Interestingly, Galadriel is called a Queen once: by Gimli, of all people, who is admittedly not an unbiased source of information where Galadriel is concerned.


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

the lord of the rings - Why is Gimli allowed to travel to Valinor?

Gimli was allowed to go to Valinor despite not being a ring bearer. Is this explained in detail or just with the one line "for his love for Galadriel"? Answer There's not much detail about this aside from what's said in Appendix A to Return of the King: We have heard tell that Legolas took Gimli Glóin's son with him because of their great friendship, greater than any that has been between Elf and Dwarf. If this is true, then it is strange indeed: that a Dwarf should be willing to leave Middle-earth for any love, or that the Eldar should receive him, or that the Lords of the West should permit it. But it is said that Gimli went also out of desire to see again the beauty of Galadriel; and it may be that she, being mighty among the Eldar, obtained this grace for him. More cannot be said of this matter. And Appendix B: Then Legolas built a grey ship in Ithilien, and sailed down Anduin and so over Sea; and with him, it is said, went Gimli the Dwarf . And when that sh

Why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize Missy right away?

So after it was established that Missy is actually both the Master, and the "woman in the shop" who gave Clara the TARDIS number... ...why didn't The Doctor or Clara recognize her right away? I remember the Tenth Doctor in The Sound of Drums stating that Timelords had a way of recognizing other Timelords no matter if they had regenerated. And Clara should have recognized her as well... I'm hoping for a better explanation than "Moffat screwed up", and that I actually missed something after two watchthroughs of the episode. Answer There seems to be a lot of in-canon uncertainty as to the extent to which Time Lords can recognise one another which far pre-dates Moffat's tenure. From the Time Lords page on Wikipedia : Whether or not Time Lords can recognise each other across regenerations is not made entirely clear: In The War Games, the War Chief recognises the Second Doctor despite his regeneration and it is implied that the Doctor knows him when they fir

What is the etymology of Doctor Who?

I recently decided to watch Doctor Who, and started viewing the 2005 version. I have the first two episodes from the first season, and I can't help but wonder what is the etymology of the name "Doctor Who"? And why does the protagonist call himself "the Doctor" (or is it "the doctor")? Answer In the very first episode of Doctor Who (way back in 1963), the Doctor has a granddaughter going by the name "Susan Foreman", and the junkyard where the TARDIS is has the sign "I.M. Foreman". Barbara, who becomes one of the Doctor's companions, calls him "Doctor Foreman" (probably assuming that is his name given his relationship to Susan), and Ian (another early companion) does the same in the second episode, to which the Doctor says: Eh? Doctor who? What's he talking about? "Foreman" is most likely selected as a convenient surname for Susan to use because it happened to be on display near where the TARDIS landed.

warhammer40k - What evidence supposedly supports Tau as related to the Necrontyr?

I've heard of rumours saying that the Tau from Warhammer 40K are in fact the Necrontyr. Is there anything that supports this statement, in WH40K canon? I just found this, on 1d4 chan 1 : Helping Necrons? Or are they Necrontyr descendants? An often overlooked issue is that Tau have no warp signatures, just like Necrons, hate Warpspawns and Warp in general, just like Necrons, have the exact same skull shape,stature and short lives, and the overwhelming need for Technology and beam weapons, JUST LIKE NECRONS. GW may have planned a race that simply prepares a pacified, multiracial galaxy for Necrons to feast upon, supported by Ethereals that have a C'tan phase blade. Then there is a reference of "dark seed in east" by the Deceiver, so the tricky C'tan might give Tzeentch the finger in the JUST AS PLANNED competition. Or maybe GW just has so little creativity that they simply made a new civ conforming to an Old One's standards without knowing it. Is this the connec